Description
Anatomy and Physiology for Health Professions 2nd Edition Colbert Ankney Lee Test Bank
ISBN-13: 978-0135060773
ISBN-10: 013506077X
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Test Bank
Chapter 1
Multiple Choice
Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question ________.
- Gross Anatomy is also known as
- Microscopic Anatomy
- Pathologic Anatomy
- Macroscopic Anatomy
- Diagnostic Anatomy
- An example of Gross Anatomy would be ________.
- Viewing an x-ray
- Using a microscope
- Performing a complete cellular blood count
- Determining the etiology of a disease
- The study of Physiology deals with ________.
- Disease
- Genetics
- Structures
- Functions
- The potential outcome of a disease is the ________.
- Etiology
- Diagnosis
- Prognosis
- Treatment
- The study of disease is known as ________.
- Neurology
- Pathophysiology
- Microbiology
- Cytology
- The three basic parts of a medical term include ________.
- Prefix, word root, suffix
- Suffix, base, meaning
- Prefix, stem, ending
- Base, word root, stem
- What system is known as the mathematical language of Anatomy and Physiology?
- Abbreviation system
- Metric system
- English system
- Customary system
- Which of the following is not a vital sign?
- Heart Rate
- Temperature
- Pain
- Respiratory rate
- When the physician has documented several signs and symptoms, he will be able to make a(n) ________.
- Prognosis
- Etiology
- Cytology
- Diagnosis
- A recording of the electrical activity of a skeletal muscle is a(n) ________.
- electrocardiogram
- electromyogram
- mamogram
- mammogram
- The adjustments that maintain a stable environment within the body are known as ________.
- Homeostasis
- Metabolism
- Syndrome
- Pathology
- Taking an MRI of the knee is considered gross anatomy because it is ________.
- Difficult
- Visually unpleasant
- Has 144 steps
- Is large scale
- The body uses feedback loops to maintain homeostasis. The response that opposes an action is known as a(n) ________.
- Depressing feedback loop
- Negative feedback loop
- Positive feedback loop
- Affirmative feedback loop
- Positive feedback is necessary in which of the following situations?
- Blood pressure
- Coughing
- Bleeding
- Childbirth
- Vital signs include all of the following except ________.
- Coloring
- Heart rate
- Respirations
- Temperature
- RBC is the abbreviation for ________.
- Really bad cut
- Red and blue circulation
- Red blood cells
- Ruptured blood clot
- The indicators that are essential for human life include all of the following except ________.
- Coloring
- Heart rate
- Respirations
- Temperature
- Which is not a definition for disease?
- Not at ease
- A condition in which the body fails to function normally
- Anything that is a normal structure or function
- Anything that upsets normal structure or function
- The term tachycardia means ________.
- Fast heart rate
- Slow heart rate
- Rhythmic heart rate
- Study of the heart rate
- Which is not a symptom of metabolic syndrome?
- High triglycerides
- Low HDL level
- High blood pressure
- Vomiting and diarrhea
- A sign that could be an indication of diabetes is breath that smells like ________.
- Fruity flavored chewing gum
- Clay or starchy paste
- Sweat
- Maple
- The prefix hyper means ________.
- Small
- Above normal
- Below normal
- Within
- The suffix oma means ________.
- Cutting into
- Enlargement of
- Surgically forming an opening
- Tumor
- The suffix algia means ________.
- Inflammation
- Cell
- Pertaining to
- Pain
- The abbreviation for a stroke is ________ and the letters stand for ________.
- CPR, cardiopulmonary resuscitation
- CAD, coronary artery disease
- CVA, cerebrovascular accident
- CVA, cardiovascular accident
- Most fevers are the body’s way of ________.
- Killing all pathogens
- Breaking up the cells of the pathogens
- Making an inhospitable environment for pathogens to survive
- Preventing pathogens from reproducing
- Sweating at night may indicate ________.
- Tuberculosis
- Hodgkin’s disease
- Riboflavin deficiency
- Skin cancer
- According to the rules of medical terminology, hepatitis is defined as ________.
- Liver failure
- Inflammation of the liver
- Cirrhosis
- Blood clotting
- The abbreviation used for twice a day is ________.
- TAD
- TID
- p.r.n
- BID
- Volumes expressed as ounces, pints, quarts, gallons, pecks, bushels, or cubic feet are examples of the ________.
- Metric system
- English system
- Scientific notation
- International system
- The diagnostic procedure is begun first determining the ________.
- Prognosis
- Syndrome
- Chief complaint
- Laboratory tests
- ________ is the branch of medicine that studies the characteristics, causes, and effects of disease.
- Anatomy
- Physiology
- Pathology
- Ornithology
- The term osteoma can be defined as ________.
- Cutting of the skin
- Tumor of the bone
- Tumor of the eye
- Cutting into the eye
- The normal heart rate for an adult is ________ beats per minute.
- 10–30
- 70–120
- 90–170
- 60–100
- The ________ is the prediction of the outcome of a disease.
- Prognosis
- Diagnosis
- Acute determination
- Syndrome
- Disease-producing microorganisms that invade the body are known as ________.
- Neogenic
- Aerobic
- Cytophrenic
- Pathogenic
- A condition in which the body fails to function normally is ________.
- Disease
- Physiology
- Nosocomial
- Epidemiology
- The cause of a disease is called its ________.
- Disease
- Pathology
- Nosocomial
- Etiology
- A specific group of signs and symptoms that are related to a specific disease is known which of the following names?
- Diagnosis
- Chief complaint
- Syndrome
- Relapse
- A patient with Syndrome X can exhibit which of the following common conditions?
- High blood sugar levels, low blood pressure, high blood level of HDL
- High blood sugar levels, high blood pressure, high triglycerides
- Low blood sugar levels, low blood pressure, high triglycerides
- Low blood sugar levels, high blood pressure, low blood level of HDL
- A patient who has metabolic syndrome is at an increased risk for all of the following except ________.
- Diabetes
- Heart attack
- Horner’s Syndrome
- Stroke
- ________ is the physiological process that monitors and maintains a stable internal environment or equilibrium.
- Homeostasis
- Negative feedback loop
- Positive feedback loop
- Metabolism
- ________ is a mechanism in our body that continually senses the internal and external environment and the body makes adjustments to maintain homeostasis.
- Homeostasis
- Negative feedback loop
- Positive feedback loop
- Metabolism
- ________ is known as a “vicious cycle.” In most cases, this is harmful if the vicious cycle cannot be broken; sometimes it is necessary for a process to run to completion.
- Homeostasis
- Negative feedback loop
- Positive feedback loop
- Metabolism
- Which of the following are examples of a sign?
- Temperature
- Pulse
- Pain
- a and b
- All of the following are symptoms except ________.
- Pain
- Respiratory rate
- Dizziness
- Itchiness
Short Answer
Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question.
- ____________ or macro anatomy represents the study of the structures visible to the unaided or naked eye.
- The study of cellular structure is called ____________.
- ____________ is the study of structure.
- ____________ is the study of how structures work.
- The study of disease is called pathology or ____________.
- The word root in pericarditis is ____________.
- A record of the breast is a(n) ____________.
- ____________ are the combining forms for nose.
- The process of recording the electrical activity of the heart is a(an) ____________ (Do not use abbreviation).
- ____________ means “fear of.”
- Forming a surgical opening in the colon is called ____________.
- One who studies nerves is a(n) ____________.
- A group of signs and symptoms is known as a(n) ____________.
- If blood sugar falls, the body uses negative feedback to ____________ blood sugar.
- The ideal normal value of a variable is known as the _______________.
- Breath that smells fruity may be an indication of ________ mellitus.
- Spoon-shaped finger nail beds may indicate a(n) ________ deficiency in the body.
- If a patient has had a “nose job” you would say in medical terms that they had a(n) ________, which means surgical repair of the nose.
- The combining form for ________ is gastro and adding the suffix itis (which means inflammation) makes the medical term gastritis.
- Changes in objective measurable values such as temperature (________) and subjective patient perceptions (symptoms) can indicate disease is present.
- The suffix tomy means ________ into.
- The prefix ________ indicates “above normal.”
- The cycle of ever-increasing uterine contractions due to an ever-increasing release of oxytocin is an example of ________.
- The word ________ is constructed using the definition “one who studies cells.”
- The area of biology that focuses on the function and vital processes of the various structures making up the human body is ________.
- The ________ is the prediction of the outcome of a disease.
- Syndrome X is essentially a syndrome that is created as a result of poor diet and lack of ________.
- Another name for Syndrome X is the ___________ syndrome.
- The artery found near the elbow is called the _________ artery.
- The average ________ body temperature in centigrade is thirty seven degrees.
- The body temperature is controlled the _______________.
- The abbreviation for immediately is ________.
- The abbreviation for nothing mouth is _____________
- The abbreviation for the technique to be performed on a pulseless and non-breathing patient is ______.
- ACLS stands for __________
- The study of tissue samples is known as ________.
True/False
Write ‘T’ if the statement is true and ‘F’ if the statement is false.
____ 1. Anatomy in Greek means to cut apart.
____ 2. ‑Anatomy focuses on the function and vital processes of the human body.
____ 3. Macro means small.
____ 4. ‑A bacterial infection is the prognosis for a Staph infection.
____ 5. ‑Negative feedback is bad for the body because it increases a change away from normal.
____ 6. Tachycardia means a slow heart rate.
____ 7. Glyc/o is the combining form for sugar.
____ 8. Leuk/o is the combining form for cell.
____ 9. Hyp/o means above normal.
____10. ‑An appendectomy means the surgical removal of the appendix.
____11. Stat means right away or immediately.
____12. A telescope views small objects.
____13. ‑Cutting into a vein is called phlebotomy.
____14. ‑Disease is a condition in which the body fails to function normally.
____15. Pain is a vital sign.
Essay
Write your answer in the space provided or on a separate sheet of paper.
- Discuss how using abbreviations can either help or hinder communication among health care professionals.
____________________________________________
____________________________________________
____________________________________________
____________________________________________
- Discuss how behaviors and environmental factors can contribute to disease.
____________________________________________
____________________________________________
____________________________________________
____________________________________________
- Define homeostasis. How is a control center important in maintaining homeostasis?
____________________________________________
____________________________________________
____________________________________________
____________________________________________
- What are “vital signs” and why are they called “vital?”
____________________________________________
____________________________________________
____________________________________________
____________________________________________
- Discuss positive and negative feedback loops.
____________________________________________
____________________________________________
____________________________________________
____________________________________________
Chapter 2
Multiple Choice
Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.
- Knowing the exact body region of a sign or symptom can help a health care worker determine the
- Proper diagnosis
- Patient’s size
- Extent of injury
- Proper medication
- A body in the prone position is
- Face up
- On left side
- On right side
- Face down
- A plane is an imaginary line dividing the body into
- Squares
- Sections
- Organs
- Tissues
- Directional terms are used as ____________ within the body.
- Vertical points
- Horizontal points
- Lateral points
- Reference points
- The midsagittal plane divides the body into which parts?
- Superior and inferior
- Internal and external
- Right and left
- Anterior and posterior
- If –emia means ”blood” then this term means high blood glucose.
- hyperglycemia
- hypercholesterolemia
- hyperlipidemia
- hyperbacteremia
- What directional term would you use to indicate the ankle if the knee is your point of reference?
- External
- Distal
- Internal
- Proximal
- A young girl falls while riding her bicycle. Initially she seems fine, but later she is complaining of severe tibial pain. Where is her pain?
- Her foot
- Her lower leg
- Her knee
- Her thigh
- The heart and lungs are located in the ____________ cavity.
- Posterior
- Abdominal
- Pelvic
- Thoracic
- Dorsal cavities contain which organs?
- Diaphragm
- Brain and spinal cord
- Stomach
- Pancreas
- The hypochondrial region is located beneath the __________?
- Ribs
- Heart
- Stomach
- Liver
- A woman involved in a high speed car accident initially seems fine, but soon develops difficulty breathing. You suspect she is bleeding into one of her body cavities. Given her symptoms, which one?
- Cranial
- Spinal
- Thoracic
- Abdominal
- The space within the mouth is known as the ____________ cavity
- Nasal
- Orbital
- Cranial
- Oral
- The belly button is located in which region?
- Epigastric
- Umbilical
- Iliac
- Hypogastric
- Pain in the ____________ quadrant can be a sign of appendicitis.
- RUQ
- LUQ
- RLQ
- LLQ
- Which test gives the greatest detail of tissue structures?
- MRI
- EKG
- Blood test
- X-ray
- Cyanosis is a condition that is usually a result of low levels of ________ within the body.
- Blood
- Oxygen
- Saline
- Calcium
- The cervical spine contains how many vertebrae?
- 12
- 7
- 5
- 3
- By placing your fingers at the T5 vertebra, you can locate which organ?
- Spleen
- Kidney
- Lung
- Brain
- The type of scan that provides a series of cross-sectional slices of the body is ________.
- MRI
- Ultrasound
- CT scan
- Sonography
- Blood is most commonly drawn from ________.
- Deep veins
- Central veins
- Superficial veins
- Deep arteries
- Jugular venous distention is visible in the ________ area.
- Neck
- Chest
- Brain
- Lungs
- The Fowlers’ position facilitates ________.
- Sleeping
- All treatments
- Dizziness
- Breathing
- An injury to the abdominopelvic cavity could include injury to ________.
- The brain
- The heart
- Spleen
- The sternum
- A patient with peripheral cyanosis needs ___.
- Oxygen
- White blood cells
- Insulin
- Potassium
- The danger of a hernia is ________.
- Internal bleeding
- Blood flow is restricted to the portion of the organ protruding
- When an umbilical hernia becomes an inguinal hernia
- When the muscle protrudes through an organ
- The supine position ________.
- Describes the body lying face upward
- Is also called the anatomical position
- Describes the body lying face downward
- Both a and b
- Because humans stand and move upright, the term dorsal can be used in place of the term ________.
- Inferior
- Posterior
- Anterior
- Distal
- A ________ section would divide the eyes from the back of the head.
- Sagittal
- Frontal
- Transverse
- Midsagittal
- ________ devices use a narrowly focused X-ray beam that circles rapidly around the body.
- Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)
- X-ray
- Ultrasound
- Computed tomography (CT) scanning
- The prone position ________.
- Describes the body lying face upward
- Is also called the anatomical position
- Describes the body lying face downward
- Both b and c
- The ________ contains the heart, lungs, and large blood vessels.
- Thoracic cavity
- Abdominopelvic cavity
- Cranial cavity
- Spinal cavity
- The skin is ________ to the bones.
- Superficial
- Medial
- Inferior
- Deep
- The opposite of superficial is ________.
- Deep
- Inferior
- Posterior
- Medial
- A section that would divide the body into mirror images would be ________.
- A frontal section
- A cross section
- A midsagittal section
- A transverse section
- The liver can be found ________.
- In the right upper quadrant (RUQ)
- In the epigastric region
- In the hypogastric region
- Both a and b
- The ankle is a ________ structure.
- Central
- Peripheral
- Thoracic
- Superior
- If you like to sleep on your stomach, you prefer sleeping in the ________ position.
- Supine
- Prone
- Orthoptic
- Abdominal
- The ________ vertebrae are located in the neck.
- Sacral
- Thoracic
- Cervical
- Cranial
- The lungs are ________ to the heart.
- Medial
- Lateral
- Superficial
- Infraorbital
- A plane dividing a body into upper and lower portions is a ________ plane.
- Sagittal
- Coronal
- Midsagittal
- Transverse
- Trendelenburg position may be contraindicated in patients with ________.
- Cerebral injury
- Hypertension
- Skin disease
- None of the above
- Cyanosis causes what coloration of the skin?
- Red
- Blue
- Black
- White
- Cyanosis is usually the result of low levels of ________ in the blood.
- Carbon dioxide
- Nitrogen
- Oxygen
- Carbon monoxide
- Which of the following is much more serious than the other conditions?
- Acrocyanosis
- Central cyanosis
- Peripheral cyanosis
- None of the above
- The most common type of radiologic diagnostic modality is the ________.
- X-ray
- CT scan
- MRI
- Ultrasound
- The thoracic and abdominopelvic cavities are separated the ________.
- Ribs
- Spinal cord
- Diaphragm
- Sternum
- The large, dome-shaped muscle called the diaphragm is used for ________.
- Circulation
- Digestion
- Reproduction
- Breathing
- A patient is complaining of pain and the doctor suspects appendicitis. In which quadrant is the pain located?
- RUQ
- RLQ
- LUQ
- LLQ
- Your patient complains of pain in the area of the liver. In which quadrant is the pain located?
- LUQ
- LLQ
- RUQ
- RLQ
- The doctor has ordered a study to look at the action of heart valves. Which procedure has he ordered?
- X-ray
- CT Scan
- MRI
- Ultrasound
- A patient is scheduled to undergo a test and has stated that she has had surgery for a valve replacement. Which procedure could be contraindicated in this situation?
- X-ray
- CT Scan
- MRI
- Ultrasound
Short Answer
Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question.
- The ____________ position is lying with the head lower than the feet.
- The ____________ position is with the bed or examination table elevated 45-60 degrees.
- The transverse (horizontal) plane divides the body into superior and ____________ areas.
- ____________ refers to body parts located away from the midline.
- The frontal or____________ plane divides the body into anterior and posterior sections.
- Posterior or ____________ means towards the back of the body.
- ____________ refers to body parts close to a point of reference on the body.
- ____________ means on the outside.
- The word meaning at or towards the body surface is ____________.
- The opposite of dorsal is anterior or ____________.
- The nose is ____________ to the eyes and ____________ to the mouth.
- If your hands and feet are swollen with fluid, you are said to have ____________ or pedal edema.
- Death of tissue is called ____________.
- The anterior surface of the elbow is called ____________.
- Antiperspirant sprays are used in the ____________ region.
- The ________ position is laying face upward.
- The wrist is ________ to the hand and ________ to the elbow.
- When the head is lower than the heart, gravity increases the blood flow and therefore increases the cerebral or ________ pressure.
- Left and right always refers to the ________ left and right.
- Digital oxygen sensors would be placed on a(n) __________.
- Patients are more prone to aspirate vomitus into their lungs in the Trendelenburg position and therefore should not ________ within two to four hours of being placed in that position.
- The ______________region of the arm is usually where blood pressures are taken.
- Pain in the general stomach area can indicate a variety of problems, including an ulcer, heart attack, appendicitis, ________ , or liver problems.
- One of the problems with an X-ray film is that it is a two ________ view of a specific area.
- A(n) ________ is a tear in the muscle wall that can allow a structure (usually an organ) to protrude through it.
- The ________ regions are located on either side of the epigastric region and contain the lower ribs.
- The ________ position is sitting in bed with the head of the bed elevated 45 to 60 degrees.
- Placing patients with secretions in the bases of their lungs in the ________ position helps drain those segments of the lungs.
- ________ imagers use magnetic energy to produce cross sectional images of body structures.
- A patient is placed in a supine position and instructed to raise his or her right leg while the practitioner places a hand on the patient’s right thigh and gives a slight opposing downward force. This procedure is known as the ________ test.
- ________ is a condition of bluish colored skin that is usually the result of low levels of oxygen in the blood.
- The ________ region is where the thigh meets the trunk and is also called the groin region.
- The Psoas test is used to test for _______________.
- Death of the tissue is termed ____________.
- Heart failure can cause the back-up of fluid into the venous system thus causing the neck or ________ veins to become engorged with extra blood.
- A hernia of the “belly button” would be termed an _____________ hernia.
- The opposite of distal is ___________________.
- The opposite of deep is ______________.
- Cyanosis found in the hands and feet would be called peripheral or __________
- A(n) ________ is a two dimensional view of a specific area.
- A(n) ________ scan creates a three dimensional view of structures in the body.
- A patient is in the Intensive Care Unit, has just had brain surgery and is suffering from an increased intracranial pressure. The ________ position is contraindicated in this situation.
True/False
Write ‘T’ if the statement is true and ‘F’ if the statement is false.
____ 1. ‑The anatomical position is a human being standing erect facing forward with feet parallel and arms hanging at the side with palms facing backward.
____ 2. ‑The Fowler’s position is the best position for patients having trouble breathing.
____ 3. ‑The prone position is best for the pelvic exam.
____ 4. Cranial means superior.
____ 5. Medial means to the side.
____ 6. ‑Computed tomography (CT) scanning uses a narrowly focused x-ray beam that circles rapidly around the body.
____ 7. ‑A CT scan can show the true depth of a quarter-sized tumor shown on regular x-ray.
____ 8. Peripheral refers to the torso and head.
____ 9. The opposite of superficial is lateral.
____10. The cranial cavity houses the brain.
____11. ‑An orbital injury can cause damage to sight.
____12. ‑The pubic area is used for cardiopulmonary resuscitation.
____13. Digital means fingers and toes.
____14. Cervical means relating to the knee.
____15. Brachial means lower leg.
Essay
Write your answer in the space provided or on a separate sheet of paper.
- List two organs or structures found in each of the RUQ, LUQ, RLQ, and LLQ.
____________________________________________
____________________________________________
____________________________________________
____________________________________________
- List and explain the major body planes and sections.
____________________________________________
____________________________________________
____________________________________________
____________________________________________
- If a patient complains of pain, what questions should you ask?
____________________________________________
____________________________________________
____________________________________________
____________________________________________
- Give the common name for the following body regions: femoral, gluteal, lumbar, antebrachial and cervical.
____________________________________________
____________________________________________
____________________________________________
____________________________________________
- Give the opposite of: caudal, distal, external, superficial, and posterior.
____________________________________________
____________________________________________
____________________________________________
____________________________________________
Chapter 3
Multiple Choice
Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.
- The smallest unit that retains the chemical properties of a particular type of matter is a(n) ________.
- Atom
- Molecule
- Element
- Ion
- Atoms or molecules which carry a charge are called ________.
- Elements
- Protons
- Neutrons
- Ions
- In a person with diabetes, blood may often become acidic. What blood pH might you expect in a person with untreated diabetes?
- 7.4
- 10.5
- 6.0
- 13.2
- Which of the following is a characteristic of an covalent bond?
- Electrons are shared
- Electrons are donated
- The molecule is always polar
- Protons are involved in the bond
- The molecule paraffin has the formula C20H44. What does that tell you about the molecule?
- It is a protein
- It is hydrophobic
- It is a nucleic acid
- It is polar
- In a solution, the ______________ is dissolved in the _________________.
- molecule, element
- solute, solvent
- solvent, solute
- element, molecule
- Glycogen is a polysaccharide made of long chains of glucose. Glucose is a ________.
- Polysaccharide
- Disaccharide
- Monosaccharide
- Saccharin
- This type of lipid molecule is important in the structure and function of cell membranes ________.
- Wax
- Phospholipid
- Triglyceride
- Estrogen
- The building blocks of proteins are ________.
- Nucleic acids
- Amino acids
- Oleic acids
- Lewis acids
- The chief type of reaction used during catabolism is ________.
- Dehydration synthesis
- Hydrolysis
- Hydration
- Hydrogen bonding
- What do anabolic steroids do when taken as medication?
- Destroy tissue
- Fight infection
- Build up tissue
- Increase fertility
- These molecules speed up the rate of biological reactions ________.
- Proteins
- Enzymes
- Antibodies
- ATP
- During this series of reactions, your cells use glucose to make energy ________.
- Metabolism
- Enzyme catalyzed
- Cellular respiration
- Blood clotting
- This high energy molecule is made and spent cells during metabolism ________.
- ATP
- ADP
- AMP
- A&P
- Which of the following has the highest energy?
- ATP
- ADP
- AMP
- A&P
- A dietary source for iodine is ________:
- celery
- sea food
- beef
- pork
- A symptom of fluorine deficiency is ________:
- acne
- hair loss
- dental cavities
- low blood pressure
- A lack of the ability of the body to carry oxygen may be due to a deficiency in ________:
- iron
- copper
- zinc
- gold
- The molecule that is stored in the liver to be used for extra energy is ________:
- glucose
- glycogen
- hemoglobin
- lipids
- Glucose is used the cells during a series of chemical reactions called ________:
- krebs cycle
- cellular ventilation
- cellular perfusion
- cellular respiration
Short Answer
Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question.
- Two or more elements joined together is a compound or __________________.
- The nucleus of an atom contains protons and _______________.
- The _____________ scale is used to measure the strength of acids and bases.
- A molecule that will mix with water is called ___________________.
- A molecule with the molecular formula CH2O is a(n) ________________.
- ____________________ are lipid molecules arranged in rings.
- ____________________ molecules may be used for energy storage, movement and protection against infection.
- _________________ are the types of molecules involved in cell control and genetics.
- All the chemical reactions in a cell are collectively referred to as _________________.
- Enzymes can only take particular substrates through particular reactions, because enzymes are ___________________.
- Cellular respiration requires both glucose and ________________.
- _____________________ molecules have nitrogen in their backbone.
- The fluid in your body is mainly _________________.
- To digest food your body needs special molecules called ___________ that help break down large molecules.
- ______________ molecules have hydrophilic heads and hydrophobic tails.
True/False
Write ‘T’ if the statement is true and ‘F’ if the statement is false.
____ 1. Ions are hydrophobic.
____ 2. ‑Physiologically important ions are called trace elements.
____ 3. ‑Water has hydrogen bonds, which give it its unique properties.
____ 4. Lead is a biological molecule.
____ 5. Covalent bonds are polar.
____ 6. A solution with pH 8 is basic.
____ 7. Water can store more heat than air.
____ 8. Disaccharides are a type of lipid.
____ 9. All steroids are unhealthy.
____10. ‑Many carbohydrates are energy storage molecules.
____11. Proteins have peptide bonds.
____12. ‑Dehydration synthesis can happen easily at room temperature.
____13. Enzymes can be inhibited.
____14. ‑During cellular respiration, no ATP is made.
____15. ‑Chemistry is not important in anatomy and physiology.
Essay
Write your answer in the space provided or on a separate sheet of paper.
- Distinguish between the major types of chemical bonds.
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____________________________________________
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____________________________________________
- Explain the function of enzymes.
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- Explain the molecular differences between carbohydrates, lipids and proteins.
____________________________________________
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- Explain the structure of an atom.
____________________________________________
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- Explain metabolism.
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Chapter 4
Multiple Choice
Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.
- The organelles that provide 95% of the body’s energy are ________.
- Ribosomes
- Mitochondria
- Adenosines
- Cytoplasma
- Sperm cells are able to move in a swimming motion the use of ____________.
- Centrioles
- Cilia
- Vesicles
- Flagella
- The molecule made mitochondria that provides the power to the cell is ________.
- ATP
- RNA
- ADP
- DNA
- A series of channels found within the cytoplasm that is formed from folded membrane is ________.
- Golgi apparatus
- Facilitated diffusion
- Endoplasmic reticulum
- Cell membrane
- Given that they have lots of golgi, salivary glands and pancreatic cells must perform which function(s)?
- Lipid synthesis
- DNA synthesis
- Protein synthesis
- Secretion and storage
- The process of cleaning debris and waste from the cell is carried out ________.
- Lysosomes
- Lipids
- Filaments
- Ribosomes
- The cell receives its shape from a network of microtubules and filaments known as the ________.
- Cytoskeleton
- Endoskeleton
- Exoskeleton
- Microskeleton
- ____________ are short, hair-like projections found on the outer surface of specific cells.
- Capsids
- Vesicles
- Cilia
- Flagella
- The most important molecules for making the cell membrane selectively permeable are ________.
- Proteins
- Phospholipids
- Cholesterol
- ATP
- When all the carrier molecules are full and no more molecules can be carried across the cell membrane, this is called ________.
- Inhibition
- Saturation
- Competition
- Specificity
- Which microorganism has the ability to become part of the cell and is then much harder to destroy?
- Virus
- Fungi
- Bacteria
- Protozoa
- Which molecule is least likely to be able to pass through a cell membrane without help?
- H2O
- CH4
- C6H12O6
- C7H16
- The process of allowing substances into and out of the cell is controlled the ________.
- Nucleus
- Cell membrane
- Lysosomes
- Golgi apparatus
- The cells that make up the human body are called ________.
- Mitotic cells
- Meiotic cells
- Eukaryotic cells
- Chromosomal cells
- What section of the cell cycle is actually devoted to cell division?
- Interphase
- Cellphase
- Duophase
- Mitosis phase
- When the body performs cellular respiration, food is changed into a form of energy called ________.
- RNA
- ADP
- DNA
- ATP
- An organism that produces disease is known as a(n) ________.
- Organelle
- Pathogen
- Magnetosome
- Centriole
- Which microorganism is spread the release of spores?
- Bacteria
- Virus
- Fungi
- Protozoa
- Which disease is caused a protozoan?
- Candidiasis
- Shingles
- Malaria
- Strep
- The substance commonly transported during facilitated diffusion is ________.
- Glucose
- Sodium
- Cytoplasm
- Potassium
- All of the following can reproduce asexually except ________.
- Animal cells
- Plant cells
- Viruses
- Bacteria
- The mitosis phase has four divisions; when do the chromosomes split?
- Anaphase
- Metaphase
- Prophase
- Telephase
- Cancer is diagnosed a variety of techniques, including all of these except ________.
- Biopsy
- Blood test
- Chemotherapy
- Imaging
- Micro-organisms that live within or on us normally are collectively called ________.
- Cancer cells
- Normal flora
- Epithelial cells
- White blood cells
- Bacterial cells have no nucleus or organelles and reproduce easily through a process known as ________.
- Chromatin
- Eukaryosis
- Interphase
- Binary fission
- Which of these is not a function of the cell membrane?
- Protein synthesis
- Regulation of what moves into and out of the cell
- Identifying the cell
- Holding the cell together
- These are called the “power plants” of the cell ________.
- Ribosome
- Mitochondria
- Golgi apparatus
- Lysosomes
- Which of these is not part of a cell?
- The plasma membrane
- The interstitial fluid
- The cytoplasm
- The nucleus
- All of the above are part of the cell
- These organelles contain powerful enzymes that take care of cleaning up intracellular debris and other waste ________.
- Ribosomes
- Smooth endoplasmic reticulum
- Mitochondria
- Lysosomes
- This is the site of protein synthesis in the cell ________.
- Mitochondria
- Lysosomes
- Ribosomes
- Golgi apparatus
- This organelle consists of tiny flattened sacs that help process and package chemicals in the cell ________.
- Ribosome
- Mitochondria
- Golgi apparatus
- Lysosome
- These are extremely fine hair-like structures on the surface of the cell ________.
- Cilia
- Microvilli
- Flagella
- Rough endoplasmic reticulum
- This is the movement of water from an area of lower solute concentration to an area of higher concentration through a membrane ________.
- Osmosis
- Diffusion
- Filtration
- Dialysis
- During this phase of mitosis, the chromosomes split and the spindles pull them apart ________.
- Telophase
- Anaphase
- Metaphase
- Interphase
- During this phase of mitosis, chromosomes are aligned in the center of the cell ________.
- Telophase
- Anaphase
- Metaphase
- Prophase
- This general process is utilized the cells for the intake of liquid and food when the substance is too large to diffuse across the cell membrane ________.
- Pinocytosis
- Endocytosis
- Exocytosis
- Phagocytosis
- ________ are unique because they cannot grow, “eat,” or reproduce themselves.
- Bacteria
- Fungi
- Protozoans
- Viruses
- Ninety percent of the cell’s life is spent in which phase during the cell cycle ________.
- Interphase
- Prophase
- Anaphase
- Metaphase
- Telophase
- An example of fungal infection is ________.
- Athlete’s foot
- Thrush
- Common cold
- a and b only
- Malaria is caused which of the following types of infections?
- Viral
- Bacterial
- Protozoan
- Fungal
- Signs and symptoms of bacterial infection may include ________.
- High fever
- Rapid pulse
- Pain and swelling
- All of the above
Short Answer
Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question.
- Parts of the cell are called ____________.
- Because all substances cannot pass easily through it, cell membranes are known as selectively permeable or _______________________ membranes.
- ____________ is the process in which a substance travels from an area of higher concentration to an area of lower concentration.
- The process of blocking a carrier is called ______________________.
- _______________ is a process in which water will travel across a semipermeable membrane from an area of lower solute concentration to an area of higher solute concentration.
- When a cell membrane actively surrounds a solid substance and forms a vesicle which moves into the cell, this is called ____________.
- The ____________ is the control center of the cell.
- ____________ act as power plants in the cell.
- ____________ are whip-like tails that help cells move.
- Normal ____________ are bacteria that are normal in the body.
- ____________ are pathogens that are surrounded capsids.
- When cells make copies of themselves without the involvement of another cell, it is called ____________.
- The process of sorting the chromosomes so that each new cell gets the right number of copies of all the genetic material is called ____________.
- The phase in which the chromosomes become visible is ____________.
- The word for non-cancerous is ____________.
- ________ are tiny building blocks of all matter which combine to form molecules.
- ________ is the process in which water travels through a selectively permeable membrane to equalize concentrations of a solute.
- ________ involves using pressure to force water and its solutes through a membrane.
- The ________ is a series of channels in the cytoplasm.
- ________ are microscopic, hair-like projections on the outer surface of some cells.
- A(n) ________ packages and delivers proteins.
- Any time a new cell is made, it is made a process of ________.
- The brief portion of the cell cycle that is devoted to actual cell division is the ________ phase.
- The phase in which the chromosomes split and the spindles pull apart is ________.
- Viruses cannot grow, eat, or reproduce themselves, but must enter another ________ to do its cellular activities.
- Bacteria, which are prokaryotes, grow rapidly and reproduce splitting in ________.
- Following the analogy in your book, consider ribosomes the manufacturing plant for building materials used for ________ and repair.
- The breaking off and spreading of malignant cells is called ________.
- Benign tumors typically grow slowly, and push ________ cells out of the way.
- Without mitosis, your body would not be able to grow, or replace old or ________ cells.
- Viruses can stay dormant in the body and become ________ once again, later in life.
- Examples of fungal infections are athlete’s foot and a mouth fungus called ________ or candidiasis.
- The ability of a substance to “pull” water toward an area of higher concentration of the solute is called ________.
- Mitosis is the division and sorting of the genetic material, while ________ is the division of the cytoplasm.
- An organism that produces disease is called a(n) ________.
- Viruses have their genetic material surrounded a protective protein coat called
a(n) ________.
- Bacterial infections are treated with ________, chemicals that can kill the prokaryotic bacteria without harming eukaryotic cells.
- ________ differs from osmosis in that pressure is applied to force water and dissolved materials across a membrane.
- A spherical body made up of dense fibers called the ________ is found within the cell nucleus.
- The ________ is a network of microtubules and interconnected filaments that provide shape to the cell and allow the cell and its contents to be mobile.
- Fungi can spread through the release of ________.
- ________ are bacteria that live within or on us and are normally harmless.
True/False
Write ‘T’ if the statement is true and ‘F’ if the statement is false.
____ 1. The stomach is an organelle.
____ 2. ‑Proteins prevent ions from crossing cell membranes.
____ 3. ‑The ability of a substance to pull water towards an area of higher concentration of the solute is filtration.
____ 4. ‑Cellular respiration makes carbon dioxide as a waste product.
____ 5. ‑If water is transported across a cell, it is known as phagocytosis.
____ 6. ‑Cytoplasm is composed of water, nutrients, and electrolytes.
____ 7. Chromatin is found in the nucleus.
____ 8. All cells have cell membranes.
____ 9. ‑The centriole is a whip-like organelle used for cell movement.
____10. ‑The Golgi apparatus has powerful enzymes that can eat cellular debris.
____11. Lysis means to break down.
____12. ‑Metastasis is spreading of benign cancer cells.
____13. Some bacteria are not pathogenic.
____14. ‑The four phases of mitosis are prophase, metaphase, anaphase, and telophase.
____15. ‑Telophase occurs when the chromosomes line up in the center of the cell.
Essay
Write your answer in the space provided or on a separate sheet of paper.
- Compare and contrast active and passive transport.
____________________________________________
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- Describe how isotonic, hypotonic, and hypertonic salt solutions affect osmotic pressure.
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____________________________________________
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____________________________________________
- Discuss the characteristics of carrier mediated transport.
____________________________________________
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____________________________________________
- Discuss the levels of organization in the human body from smallest to largest.
____________________________________________
____________________________________________
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____________________________________________
- Discuss how cancer is mitosis run amok.
____________________________________________
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Chapter 5
Multiple Choice
Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.
- Cells that are arranged in several layers are called ____________ cells.
- Cuboidal
- Stratified
- Columnar
- Squamous
- The lining of the urinary bladder is composed of which type of cell?
- Simple squamous
- Transitional
- Simple cuboidal
- Simple columnar
- This connective tissue has cells in lacunae in a gel-like matrix ________.
- Cartilage
- Areolar
- Regular
- Reticular
- Muscle tissue possesses contractility, also known as the ability to ________.
- Swell
- Mutate
- Shorten
- Strengthen
- This connective tissue has cells in a mineral matrix ________.
- Cartilage
- Reticular
- Bone
- Blood
- Which membrane is the largest organ of the integumentary system?
- Cutaneous
- Mucous
- Parietal
- Visceral
- The colon is an organ included in which body system?
- Gastrointestinal
- Cardiovascular
- Integumentary
- Reproductive
- Which of the following is considered a nonvital organ?
- Heart
- Gallbladder
- Lung
- Liver
- The production of blood cells occurs within which body system?
- Cardiovascular
- Muscular
- Endocrine
- Skeletal
- Which type of muscle lines the blood vessels and airways of the body?
- Rough
- Glia
- Smooth
- Striated
- Your skin, after it is exposed to sunlight, will produce which vitamin?
- Vitamin A
- Vitamin B
- Vitamin C
- Vitamin D
- Processing and interpreting information, motor functions and sensory functions are responsibilities of which body system?
- Muscular
- Nervous
- Sensory
- Endocrine
- Balance is the responsibility of which sensory organ?
- Ear
- Eye
- Nose
- Throat
- What is the first step in wound healing?
- Regeneration
- Inflammation
- Organization
- Scarring
- Which of the following tissues regenerates well?
- Cardiac muscle
- Nervous Tissue
- Smooth Muscle
- Bone
- An example of a synovial joint would be the ________.
- Axis
- Brachial
- Temporal
- Knee
- The movement of food is a function of ________ muscles.
- Involuntary
- Sensory
- Cardiac
- Striated
- Maintaining the proper acid-base balance of the blood is carried out which body system?
- Skeletal
- Respiratory
- Musculoskeletal
- Integumentary
- T-Lymphocytes are specialized cells produced for which function?
- Producing red blood cells
- Genetic reproduction
- Saliva production
- Fighting infection
- Mucous is ________.
- The type of membrane
- The material that collects in the corner of the eye
- The actual substance secreted membranes
- The substance secreted synovial membranes
- Specialized infection-fighting WBCs are produced the ________ system.
- Cardiovascular
- Lymphatic
- Integumentary
- Endocrine
- A patient who has difficulty conceiving most likely has a problem in the ________ system.
- Nervous
- Urinary
- Reproductive
- Cardiovascular
- One of the functions of the endocrine system is to help you deal with stresses produced ________.
- Trauma
- Dizziness
- Sleeplessness
- Nausea
- The term tachypnea means ________.
- Fast breathing
- Fast heart rate
- Fast blood pressure rise
- Fast spike in temperature
- The body’s largest organ is ________.
- The liver
- The brain
- The large intestine
- The skin
- The skeletal system includes all but which of the following?
- Bones
- Cartilage
- Ligaments
- All of the above are included in the skeletal system
- This type of muscle tissue is found in the stomach ________.
- Skeletal
- Voluntary
- Smooth
- Cardiac
- This type of muscle tissue is found in the heart ________.
- Skeletal
- Voluntary
- Smooth
- Cardiac
- Which of the following is not a gland in the endocrine system?
- Thyroid
- Pituitary
- Hypothalamus
- Salivary
- Which of these organs is a primary organ of the digestive system?
- Liver
- Pancreas
- Small intestine
- Both a and c
- This type of tissue provides rapid communication between various parts of the body ________.
- Epithelial
- Connective
- Muscle
- Nervous
- This type of tissue covers the body and lines many of the parts of the body ________.
- Epithelial
- Connective
- Muscle
- Nervous
- This is the most common tissue and is found throughout the body more than any other form ________.
- Epithelial
- Connective
- Muscle
- Nervous
- This type of tissue specializes in movement of the body ________.
- Epithelial
- Connective
- Muscle
- Nervous
- This type of tissue can be classified the shape and arrangement of its cells ________.
- Epithelial
- Connective
- Muscle
- Nervous
- The ________ system transports water, oxygen, and a variety of nutrients and other substances necessary for life to the cells, and transports waste products away from the cells.
- Cardiovascular
- Urinary
- Digestive
- Respiratory
- When cells are arranged in a scale-like or flat arrangement, they are referred to as ________.
- Squamous
- Cuboidal
- Columnar
- Transitional
- Which of the following epithelial membranes is the largest organ of the integumentary system?
- cutaneous
- parietal
- visceral
- mucous
- Which of the epithelial membranes encases individual organs?
- parietal
- mucous
- visceral
- cutaneous
- Which membrane lines the wall of the thoracic cavity?
- cutaneous
- parietal
- mucous
- visceral
Short Answer
Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question.
- When similar cells act together to perform a function, they are called a(n) ____________.
- Any avascular tissue with no extracellular matrix and an obvious top surface is __________________ tissue.
- The ______________ tissue is a single layer of plate-like cells.
- Muscle tissue that is striated is called skeletal or ____________.
- A torn ligament involves damage to ________________ connective tissue.
- Membranes that cover the brain and spinal cord are called ____________.
- The membrane layer that wraps around individual organs is called ____________.
- Nervous tissue has two types of cells _______________ and glia.
- Adipose tissue is more commonly known as _______________.
- Tissue healing begins with cells called ______________________ which draw the edges of the wound together.
- The ____________ system delivers oxygen to the bloodstream.
- The ____________ system acts as a storm drain and protects the body.
- The ____________ system is the main storage for calcium.
- The sensory or ____________ system provides sensory information from the external world.
- The ____________ system rids the body of carbon dioxide.
- In a serous membrane, the membrane layer that lines cavities is called ________.
- The combining form for joints is ________.
- The combining form for vein is ven/o, veni/i and ________.
- The limbs are part of the ________ skeleton.
- The skin and hair are parts of the ________ system.
- ________ are the sites of exchange between blood and tissue.
- Special structures called lymph nodes act as filters to capture unwanted particles or ________.
- Hormones produced the ________ system help you to deal with general stress and stress produced infection and trauma.
- The ________ system helps regulate the number of red blood cells and the acid-base and electrolyte balance of blood.
- The ________ layer lines the wall of the cavities in which organs reside.
- A membrane associated with connective tissue is the ________ membrane.
- Skeletal muscle is described as ________ because of its striped appearance.
- ________ are conscious (and unconscious) feelings or an awareness of conditions that occur inside and outside of the body.
- The membranes associated with covering the brain and spinal cord are called ________.
- The branchlike formations that receive sensory information are called ________.
- The ________ layer, which also produces serous fluids, wraps around the individual organs.
- The body’s first line of protection is its ________.
True/False
Write ‘T’ if the statement is true and ‘F’ if the statement is false.
____ 1. Squamous cells are column-like.
____ 2. ‑Stretchy epithelial tissue is called transitional.
____ 3. Mucus lubricates tissue.
____ 4. ‑Connective tissue is the most common tissue.
____ 5. Blood is a connective tissue.
____ 6. ‑Involuntary muscle tissue is called skeletal muscle.
____ 7. ‑Swelling is always a negative symptom which should be prevented at all costs.
____ 8. Nervous tissue regenerates well.
____ 9. ‑A mucous membrane is a double layered membrane with a potential space between the layers.
____10. The liver is part of the urinary system.
____11. ‑The cardiovascular system is one of the body’s control systems.
____12. Veins carry blood away from the heart.
____13. ‑The esophagus is in the gastrointestinal system.
____14. ‑Nitrogen waste is usually eliminated through the integumentary system.
____15. ‑Hormones are chemicals which circulate in the bloodstream.
Essay
Write your answer in the space provided or on a separate sheet of paper.
- Explain the relationship between cells, tissues, organs and systems.
____________________________________________
____________________________________________
____________________________________________
____________________________________________
- Choose one system and list the parts of that system.
____________________________________________
____________________________________________
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- Distinguish between connective and epithelial tissue.
____________________________________________
____________________________________________
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- Explain the steps in wound healing.
____________________________________________
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- Compare and contrast cardiac, smooth, and skeletal muscle.
____________________________________________
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Chapter 6
Multiple Choice
Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.
- Which type of bone is cube-shaped in appearance?
- Short
- Long
- Regular
- Irregular
- The ends of long bones are known as the ____________.
- Medulla
- Periosteum
- Diaphysis
- Epiphyses
- A narrow ridge of bone is known as the ____________.
- Crest
- Head
- Spine
- Condyle
- A ____________ is a groove or shallow depression on the surface of a bone.
- Facet
- Sinus
- Fossa
- Meatus
- An ____________ is a mature bone cell.
- Osteoprogenitor
- Osteoblast
- Osteoclast
- Osteocyte
- Compact bone is created over the surface of spongy bone ____________.
- Osteoprogenitors
- Osteoclasts
- Osteons
- Osteoblasts
- Bone growth will continue for as long as the ____________ plate exists.
- Diaphyseal
- Epiphyseal
- Osteon
- Medullary
- ____________ is the type of connective tissue that helps to cushion the ends of long bones.
- Spongy bone
- Cartilage
- Bone marrow
- Synovium
- This type of joint is held together connective tissue strands ________.
- Gliding
- Synovial
- Cartilaginous
- Fibrous
- What type of joint is formed when an oval shaped bone fits into an elliptical cavity?
- Pivot
- Gliding
- Hinge
- Ellipsoidal
- The joints of the hips and shoulders are examples of ____________ joints.
- Pivot
- Fibrous
- Ball and socket
- Saddle
- This movement occurs when you turn your foot toward the other foot ________.
- Eversion
- Inversion
- Pronation
- Flexion
- The primary ossification center in long bones is located in the ________.
- Epiphyses
- Diaphysis
- Articular cartilage
- Central Canal
- The bone disease ____________ is a degenerative disorder, characterized thinning bones.
- Osteoporosis
- Osteitis
- Osteomyelitis
- Osteosarcomas
- The last stage in bone repair is ________.
- Remodeling
- Bony callus formation
- Soft callus formation
- Hematoma formation
- Which mineral is included in the composition of bone?
- Iodine
- Calcium
- Potassium
- Iron
- The spinal column and bones of the middle ear are part of the ________ skeleton.
- Superior
- Axial
- Inferior
- Appendicular
- Lordosis is a(n) ________ curvature of the lower back and is commonly called ________.
- Left lateral, swayback
- Posterior, swayback
- Anterior, swayback
- Anterior, hunchback
- Your textbook lists eight causative agents for bone and joint disorders other than osteoporosis and arthritis. Which of these is not one of them?
- Nutritional disorders
- Degenerative disorders
- Tumors
- Osteomalacia
- ________ is a nutritional disorder caused a vitamin D deficiency.
- Osteomalacia
- Rickets
- Scurvy
- Both a and b
- Scoliosis is an example of what classification of disorders?
- Infection
- Congenital
- Trauma
- Secondary
- If the body is not in balance, regardless of the cause, spinal curvatures may be exaggerated, leading to ________.
- Kyphosis
- Scoliosis
- Lordosis
- All of the above
- Which of these is not a type of arthritis?
- Rheumatoid
- Osteo
- Septic
- Cruciate
- A bone fracture in your arm would be part of the ________ division of the skeleton.
- Thoracic
- Appendicular
- Axial
- Spinal
- This refers to the shaft of a long bone ________.
- Epiphyses
- Periosteum
- Diaphysis
- Endosteum
- This is the strong, fibrous connective tissue covering the bone ________.
- Epiphyses
- Periosteum
- Diaphysis
- Endosteum
- This term refers to the ends of a long bone ________.
- Epiphyses
- Periosteum
- Diaphysis
- Endosteum
- This membrane lines the spongy bone ________.
- Epiphyses
- Periosteum
- Diaphysis
- Endosteum
- This is the location in the bone where hemopoiesis occurs ________.
- Epiphyses
- Periosteum
- Diaphysis
- Medullary cavity
- The microscopic cylindrical-shaped unit of compact bone is called ________.
- The endosteum
- The cancellous
- The osteon
- The trabeculae
- The bar and plate-like tissue of spongy bone are called ________.
- Flagellite
- Osteocytes
- Osteon
- Trabeculae
- Bone-building cells are called ________.
- Osteoblasts
- Osteoclasts
- Osteocytes
- Hemopoietics
- The skeleton can still grow as long as there is cartilage left in the ________.
- Haversian system
- Diaphysis
- Epiphyseal plate
- Chondrocytes
- An abnormal side-to-side curve in the vertebral column is called ________.
- Lordosis
- Kyphosis
- Scoliosis
- Convexities
- The number of pairs of true ribs is ________.
- 12
- 14
- 5
- 7
- These joints permit the widest range of movement ________.
- Hinge
- Pivot
- Saddle
- Ball and socket
- This bone condition occurs most frequently in postmenopausal women with calcium deficiencies ________.
- Rickets
- Osteomalacia
- Osteoporosis
- Paget’s disease
- Ensuring that young children had a sufficient amount of vitamin D would prevent ________.
- Rickets
- Osteomalacia
- Osteoporosis
- Paget’s disease
- Another name for a compound fracture is ________.
- An open fracture
- A closed fracture
- A comminuted fracture
- An impacted fracture
- ________ is a general term used to describe an inflammatory process of a joint or joints.
- Arthritis
- Osteoarthritis
- Gout
- Bursitis
- ________ is a degenerative condition that is a result of simple “wearing out” of a joint from a sports injury, trauma, repetitive motion, obesity, or just the aging process.
- Rheumatoid arthritis
- Osteoarthritis
- Gout
- Bursitis
- ________ is a chronic, systemic disease that is believed to be an autoimmune condition affecting the connective tissue of the body.
- Gout
- Bursitis
- Septic arthritis
- Rheumatoid arthritis
- ________ is the result of the infective process of a pathogen that was introduced to a joint from a penetrating wound or a blood-borne pathogen.
- Rheumatoid arthritis
- Gout
- Septic arthritis
- Arthritis
- A cleft palate is an example of which of the following?
- Congenital disorder
- Degenerative disorder
- Infection
- Nutritional disorder
- Osteoporosis is an example of which of the following?
- Congenital disorder
- Infection
- Degenerative disorder
- Nerve disorder
- Signs and symptoms of osteoarthritis include which of the following?
- Joint develops a crooked deformation
- Greater range of motion
- Painful swelling of affected joint
- a and c only
- This is a common sports injury caused twisting of the leg, or an anterior or posterior blow when the leg is planted or bearing weight ________.
- Cruciate ligament tears
- Gout
- Osteomalacia
- Osteoporosis
Short Answer
Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question.
- The hollow region in the bone is the ____________ cavity.
- Tarsals are examples of ____________ bones.
- Vertebrae are examples of ____________ bones.
- Spongy bone tissue is arranged in bars and plates called ____________.
- The production of red blood cells is known as erythropoiesis or____________.
- An articulating end of a bone that is rounded and enlarged is called a(n) ____________.
- A hollow area is a(n) ____________.
- A tube or tunnel-like passageway through bone is a canal or____________.
- The larger version of a tubercle located only on the femur is the ____________.
- Ossification or ____________ is the term used to describe the formation of bone in the body.
- Broken bones will not knit together unless they are touching or ___________.
- The clavicle and skull bones form via __________________ ossification.
- The tissue making up most of your skeleton until embryonic week 8 is known as ________________.
- When joints become inflamed, this is called ____________.
- ____________ means to move away.
- The end of the bone is called the ________.
- A special form of connective tissue that can withstand a fair amount of flexing, tension, and pressure is ________ or ligaments and tendons.
- When joints become inflamed, it is called ________,
.
- When two or more bones meet, we have an ________.
- ________ describes increasing the angle of a joint.
- Cruciate ligament tears are treated with rest, immobilization, and/or ________ intervention.
- Pain medication can include non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) such as naproxen and ibuprofen. These drugs reduce ________, thus reducing pain and swelling.
- Because of the continual breakdown of old and creation of new bone, adults actually need more calcium in their diets than do ________.
- Osteoporosis is a metabolic problem with slow, progressive decrease in bone ________.
- A compound or ________ fracture is particularly nasty because deep tissue has the potential to be exposed to bacteria once the bone is set into place, increasing the chance for infection.
- A patient should see the doctor for any obvious bone deformity or misalignment of a(n) ________.
- Very tough, whitish bands that connect from bone to bone are called ________.
- Another term for the production of red blood cells is ________.
- ________ is a chronic, systemic disease that is believed to be an autoimmune condition affecting the connective tissue of the body.
- ________ bones are fairly equal sized in width and length, similar to a cube, and are mostly found in your wrists and ankles.
- ________ joints are found in your knees and elbows.
- If a bone is crushed to the point that it becomes fragmented or splintered, that is classified as a ________ fracture.
- The ________ in women is different than in men. This fact can be used to identify the sex of a skeleton, such as in a murder case or an archeological find.
- Osteoporosis research is showing that ________, especially weight bearing and impact forms, improves bone density.
- ________ is a condition in which the upper portion of the spine exhibits a posterior curve, producing what is commonly called a humpback or hunchback.
- ________ is a lateral curvature of the spine.
- ________ is an anterior curve of the lower back and is commonly called swayback.
- A fine fracture that does not completely break or displace the bone is a(n) ________ fracture.
- A(n) ________ or closed fracture is a break without a puncture to the skin.
- An individual in an accident who has a bone that is severely twisted may receive a(n)________ fracture.
- ________ fractures are incomplete breaks, which more often occur in children because they have softer, more pliable bone than adults.
- A fracture in which the bone is pushed through the skin is referred to as a(n) ________ or open fracture.
- Tendonitis or tendinitis often occurs in conjunction with ________.
True/False
Write ‘T’ if the statement is true and ‘F’ if the statement is false.
____ 1. ‑Bending your knee is an example of joint extension.
____ 2. ‑The deltoid muscle moves the arm away from the body. It is a flexor.
____ 3. Supination turns the palm downward.
____ 4. ‑One hundred twenty-six bones comprise the appendicular skeleton.
____ 5. ‑The appendicular skeleton includes bones of the thorax, spinal column, hyoid bone, bones of the middle ear, and skull.
____ 6. The tarsals are the toe bones.
____ 7. There are twelve thoracic vertebrae.
____ 8. The skull has mainly synovial joints.
____ 9. ‑Once you reach puberty bone stops regenerating.
____10. ‑The heel of the foot is known as the acromion process.
____11. The patella is the kneecap.
____12. Bone is covered endosteum.
____13. ‑The lining of a freely moving joint is cartilage only.
____14. Fibrous joints are not freely moving.
____15. ‑Arthritis is mainly caused cracking your knuckles and slouching.
Essay
Write your answer in the space provided or on a separate sheet of paper.
- Explain the microanatomy of compact bone.
____________________________________________
____________________________________________
____________________________________________
____________________________________________
- Describe how the body makes new bone.
____________________________________________
____________________________________________
____________________________________________
____________________________________________
- List five types of bone disorders.
____________________________________________
____________________________________________
____________________________________________
____________________________________________
- List three types of joint disorders.
____________________________________________
____________________________________________
____________________________________________
____________________________________________
- Explain the steps in bone repair.
____________________________________________
____________________________________________
____________________________________________
____________________________________________
Chapter 7
Multiple Choice
Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.
- Thin myofilaments are called ________.
- Z bars
- Myosin
- Myofibril
- Actin
- Muscles may be named using ________.
- Speed
- Action
- Age
- Myofilament type
- When the nervous system signals a muscle to contract ____________ ion channels open.
- Phosphorus
- Sodium
- Myosin
- Actin
- Skeletal muscle produces body movement as well as maintains our ____________ as we sit.
- Strength
- Vasodilation
- Vasoconstriction
- Posture
- The _____________________ is the prime elbow flexor.
- Biceps femoris
- Biceps brachii
- Triceps brachii
- Flexor digitorum
- The _____________________ muscle is located on the front of the lower leg.
- Gastrocnemium
- Latissimus dorsi
- Tibialis anterior
- Hamstrings
- Which type of muscle will not regenerate once it is severely damaged?
- Smooth
- Visceral
- Cardiac
- Skeletal
- Which term is used to designate muscle pain?
- Myalgia
- Ataxia
- Paralysis
- Spasm
- Which disorder affects the peripheral nervous system usually with ascending paralysis starting in the feet?
- Muscular dystrophy
- Guillain-Barré syndrome
- Myasthenia gravis
- Tetanus
- Striated muscles, which appear to have stripes, are in which type of muscle?
- Skeletal
- Internal
- Visceral
- Smooth
- Blood is pumped through the heart which type of muscle?
- Skeletal
- Smooth
- Cardiac
- Visceral
- The stationary attachment of the muscle is called the ____________.
- Point of movement
- Point of insertion
- Point of control
- Point of origin
- The only muscle that possesses both voluntary and involuntary abilities is the ________.
- Heart
- Lung
- Diaphragm
- Brain
- Rotation occurs when you have movement around a(n) ________.
- Axis
- Vessel
- Vertebrae
- Ball and socket
- The muscle movement that enables a joint to bend is the ________.
- Flexion
- Flexor
- Extension
- Extensor
- Muscle cells are made up of ________.
- Z bars
- Myosin
- Myofibrils
- Actin
- The myofilaments used during muscle contractions will return to their resting state when the ________ relax.
- Sarcomeres
- Myosin
- Actin
- Z Bars
- When the nervous system signals a muscle to contract, the ________ ion channels open.
- Phosphorus
- Sodium
- Myosin
- Actin
- Skeletal muscles are able to contract ________ times faster than smooth muscle.
- 20
- 40
- 50
- 60
- Approximately ________ percent of the body’s weight comes from its muscles.
- 15
- 50
- 65
- 80
- The part of the muscle that attaches to the bone that is stationary is called the ________.
- Point of movement
- Point of insertion
- Point of control
- Point of origin
- The symptom of shin splints is ________.
- Patellar displacement
- Swelling in the wrist
- Pain in the tibia
- Bruising of the shins
- Myasthenia gravis is a(n) ________ disorder.
- Malignant
- Genetic
- Myosin
- Autoimmune
- The etiology of fibromyalgia is ________.
- Unknown
- Acute injury
- Sudden, involuntary muscle spasms
- Bacterial infection
- Duchenne muscular dystrophy is a(n) ________ defect in muscle protein
- Autoimmune
- Genetic
- Unknown
- Acute
- The bacteria clostridium tetani release a toxin that ________.
- Relaxes muscles and tightens ligaments
- Causes intermittent muscle spasms
- Causes the patient to go into shock
- Keeps muscles constantly contracted
- Which of the following is not a symptom of myopathy?
- Weakness
- Genetics
- Stiffness
- Spasm
- Atrophy means muscles ________.
- Have increased growth
- Waste away
- Will be scarred
- Develop excessively in childhood
- The toxin used in Botox to treat wrinkles is ________.
- Botulinum toxin
- Clostridium tetani
- Staph
- Acetylcholine
- A severe muscle strain can cause all of the following symptoms except ________.
- Complete loss of movement
- Swelling
- Severe pain
- Fever
- The location of pain is confined to tender points in ________.
- Muscular dystrophy
- Tetanus
- Myasthenia gravis
- Fibromyalgia
- Another name for a voluntary muscle is ________.
- Striated muscle
- Cardiac muscle
- Skeletal muscle
- Both a and c
- This type of muscle tissue contains striations.
- Voluntary muscle
- Cardiac muscle
- Smooth muscle
- Both a and b
- Another name for visceral muscle is ________.
- Cardiac muscle
- Voluntary muscle
- Smooth muscle
- Striated muscle
- Strength training causes ________.
- Muscle atrophy
- A decrease in blood vessels to a muscle
- Muscle hypertrophy
- A decrease in the number of mitochondria in a muscle cell
- In the bending of the elbow ________.
- The triceps brachii is the synergist
- The biceps brachii is the prime mover
- The biceps brachii is the antagonist
- The brachialis is the prime mover
- The triceps brachii and the biceps brachii ________.
- Are synergistic for each other
- Both have their origin in the forearm
- Are antagonist to each other
- Both have their insertions in the shoulder
- Intercalated discs are found in ________.
- Striated muscle
- Cardiac muscle
- Smooth muscle
- All of the above
- Wasting away or deterioration of muscle is called ________.
- Hypertrophy
- Ankylosis
- Atrophy
- Myositis
- ________ is an injury that is the result of overuse, overstretching, or forcible stretching of a muscle beyond its functional capacity. It sometimes involves a tendon or ligament.
- Avulsion
- Sprain
- Shin splints
- Strain
- A strong, tough strand or cord of dense connective tissue that serves as an attachment for muscle to bone is ________.
- A ligament
- Cartilage
- Adipose tissue
- A tendon
- Endurance training results in ________.
- Muscle atrophy
- An increase in blood vessels to a muscle
- Muscle hypertrophy
- An increase in muscle fibers
- The movement that is opposite of flexion is ________.
- Abduction
- Rotation
- Extension
- Supination
- ________ provides the energy to help the myosin heads form and break the crossbridges with actin.
- ATP
- Calcium
- Potassium
- Vitamin D
- All of the following can be used in naming a muscle except ________.
- Location of attachments
- Size
- Action
- Shape
- Color
- Pectoralis major is located in or near the ________.
- Elbow
- Chest
- Upper portion of the thigh
- Front of lower leg
- Symptoms of tendinosis include which of the following?
- Pain
- Tenderness
- Stiffness
- All of the above
- A common running-related inflammatory injury of the extensor muscles and surrounding tissues of the lower legs is called ________.
- Shin splints
- Tendinitis
- Muscle sprain
- Myopathy
- The majority of fibromyalgia patients are ________.
- Men
- Women
- Children
- Elderly
- This bacteria releases a toxin that keeps muscles constantly contracted and causes tetanus.
- Meningitis
- E. Coli
- Staphylococcus aureus
- Clostridium tetani
- Which of the following conditions can be the result of prolonged physical activity, excessive fluid/electrolyte loss, or menstruation?
- Tetanus
- Fibromyalgia syndrome
- Cramps/spasms
- Strains/tendinitis
- Progressive fluctuating muscle weakness, often starting in the facial or eye muscles are signs and symptoms of which disease?
- Mitochondrial myopathy
- Fibromyalgia syndrome
- Myasthenia gravis
- Duchenne muscular dystrophy
- Progressive descending muscle spasm, rigidity, stiffness and pain, especially in the jaw are signs and symptoms of which disease?
- Tetanus
- Fibromyalgia syndrome
- Cramps/spasms
- Strains/tendinitis
Short Answer
Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question.
- The 3 types of muscle are cardiac, skeletal, and ____________.
- ____________ attach bone to bone.
- The end of the muscle that is attached to the moving bone is the ____________.
- Muscles that cause movement in the opposite direction of the prime mover when they contract are called ____________.
- The muscle that controls breathing is the ____________.
- A muscle that bends a joint is called a(n) ____________ muscle.
- The sternocleidomastoid is attached at the sternum, mastoid process and ____________
- Motor neurons release the neurotransmitter ____________.
- During muscle contraction myosin heads bind to ______________.
- Increased muscle growth is called ____________.
- Muscles convert ____________ to glucose.
- ____________ means muscle pain or tenderness.
- ____________ is a condition of muscle wasting.
- ____________ is a bacterial infection that causes rigid paralysis.
- ____________ describes increasing the angle of a joint.
- ________ is the study of muscles and movement.
- When blood vessels get larger in diameter, it is called ________.
- When the body dies, excess calcium remains in the muscles and causes the ________ fibers to shorten and stiffen the body.
- During an asthma attack, the smooth muscles in the airways of the lungs ________, causing the patient to have difficulty getting air in and out.
- Tetanus is a muscle disease caused an untreated bacterial infection of a(n) ________.
- The majority of fibromyalgia syndrome patients are ________.
- Vasoconstriction can cause blood pressure to ________.
- Vasodilation can cause the blood pressure to ________.
- Some muscular diseases can cause ________, which is a condition of irregular muscle movement and lack of muscle coordination.
- The main skeletal muscle that controls our breathing is the ________.
- A(n) ________ is a test in which a muscle group is stimulated with an electrical impulse that causes a contraction.
- When excess calcium remains in the muscles throughout the body and causes the muscle fibers to shorten (contract) and stiffen the whole body, ________ has set in.
- ________ are donut-shaped muscles that act as doorways to let materials in and out alternately contracting and relaxing.
- A common running-related inflammatory injury of the extensor muscles and surrounding tissues of the lower legs is called ________.
- ________ or tendinitis is a degenerative disease leading to breakdown and scarring of tendons, that appears to be caused the failure of tendons to repair themselves after injury.
- The sarcomere has the actin and myosin filaments arranged in repeating units separated from each other dark bands called Z________.
- ________ (also known as lock jaw) is a muscle disorder caused an untreated bacterial infection of a wound.
- Muscle strains are injuries caused overstretching the ________ or the muscles themselves.
- ________ is a degenerative disease leading to breakdown and scarring of tendons.
- Cramps or ________ are a sudden, severe involuntary muscle contraction.
- ________ cause pain in the tibia region.
- ________ is a potentially deadly disease caused food poisoning with the Clostridium botulinum bacteria.
- Strains (tears) or ________ can be caused an acute injury or chronic overuse or disease.
True/False
Write ‘T’ if the statement is true and ‘F’ if the statement is false.
____ 1. Smooth muscle is found in the stomach.
____ 2. Ligaments attach muscle to bone.
____ 3. The rectus femoris is in the arm.
____ 4. ‑Abduction moves a muscle away from midline.
____ 5. ‑Extension decreases the angle between 2 bones.
____ 6. Vasoconstriction makes vessels smaller.
____ 7. ‑Cardiac muscle is only found in the heart.
____ 8. Hypertrophy is muscle wasting.
____ 9. ‑Ataxia is partial or total loss of the ability to move muscles.
____10. Sprains are tears or breaks in ligaments.
____11. ‑Guillain-Barré syndrome is a disorder of the peripheral nervous system.
____12. ‑An electromyograph records electrical activity in muscles.
____13. ‑A hernia is caused when tendons become inflamed.
____14. ‑The pectoralis major muscle is named for its action.
____15. Smooth muscle is voluntary muscle.
Essay
Write your answer in the space provided or on a separate sheet of paper.
- Explain the steps underlying skeletal muscle contraction.
____________________________________________
____________________________________________
____________________________________________
____________________________________________
- Explain why corpses become stiff.
____________________________________________
____________________________________________
____________________________________________
____________________________________________
- List the rules for naming muscles
____________________________________________
____________________________________________
____________________________________________
____________________________________________
- Explain the structure of a sarcomere.
____________________________________________
____________________________________________
____________________________________________
____________________________________________
- Compare and contrast myasthenia gravis, muscular dystrophy, Guillain-Barré Syndrome and tetanus.
____________________________________________
____________________________________________
____________________________________________
____________________________________________
Chapter 8
Multiple Choice
Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.
- What is the layer of skin that we can see?
- Subcutaneous fascia
- Epidermis
- Stratum basale
- Dermis
- Patches of melanin found on the skin form ____________.
- Melanocytes
- Freckles
- Bilirubin
- Carotene
- The condition of yellow jaundice occurs when the body builds up excess
- Carotene
- Melanin
- Bilirubin
- Freckles
- Collagenous and elastic fibers of the ____________ make it possible for the skin to flex with movement of the body.
- Dermis
- Subcutaneous
- Epidermis
- Fascia
- ____________ sweat glands become active at puberty.
- Sebaceous
- Apocrine
- Salivary
- Eccrine
- The skin is attached to the muscles of the body the ____________ layer.
- Epidermis
- Dermis
- Hypodermis
- Subcutaneous
- Connective tissue of the skin is developed from ____________.
- Melanocytes
- Fibroblasts
- Collagen
- Fascia
- What is the degree of burn in which all three layers of skin have been destroyed and the victim feels no pain?
- First
- Second
- Third
- Fourth
- The “rule of ____________” is a system devised to assess the amount of body surface affected a burn.
- Injury
- Nines
- Many
- Five
- After a severe burn, a patient may require a(n) ____________, in which skin is removed from an unaffected area of his body and moved to the burned area.
- Antibacterial patch
- Heterograft
- Donor site
- Autograft
- Epidermal cells are sloughed off from the ________.
- Basal layer
- Clear layer
- Horny layer
- Dermal layer
- Specialized epithelial cells originating from the nail ____________ form your nails.
- Root
- Cells
- Bed
- Base
- What color would you expect to see at a healthy nail bed?
- Blanche
- White
- Pink
- Tan
- By the time epidermal cells reach the surface of the epidermis they are filled with ________.
- Keratin
- Carotene
- Lunula
- Granulosa
- The integumentary system plays an important role in regulating the body’s ____________.
- Environment
- Composition
- Elasticity
- Temperature
- Medication placed into the skin is called ________.
- Intravascular
- Intramuscular
- Intracutaneous
- Intraspinal
- ________ is a disease in which there is reduced blood flow to the extremities.
- PVD
- Jaundice
- Dermatitis
- RBC
- Which of the following is not a fungal infection?
- Tinea pedis
- Tinnitus corporis
- Tinea cruris
- Tinea corporis
- Fourth degree burns penetrate ________.
- To the muscle
- To the subcutaneous tissue
- To the skin
- To the bone
- Jaundice is caused a build-up in the body of ________.
- Carotene
- Bilirubin
- Melanin
- Bile
- Pubic lice are often called ________.
- Bugs
- Sex bugs
- Nits
- Crabs
- Treatment for Herpes is ________.
- Antivirals
- Antibiotics
- Steroids
- Medicated cream
- Diabetes is a disease that may cause reduced blood flow to the extremities. This condition is known as ________.
- Keloid
- Folliculitis
- Peripheral vascular disease (PVD)
- Dermatitis
- Plantar warts are found ________.
- On children’s hands and fingers
- Around the mouth and nose
- On the genitals
- On the sole of the foot
- A lesion can include all of the following except ________.
- Wound
- Injury
- Single patch of skin
- Infected follicle
- A condition that has a “bulls-eye” macule/papule is ________.
- Scabies
- General warts
- Acne
- Lyme disease
- Tinea capitis, tinea corporis, tinea pedis, and tinea cruris are caused ________.
- Bacteria
- Mites
- Fungi
- Ringworms
- Causes of alopecia (baldness) include ______.
- Chemotherapy and other medications
- Aging and heredity factors
- Scalp infections
- All of the above
- Which statement is not true of the epidermis?
- It is a stratified squamous epithelium.
- It is composed mostly of connective tissue.
- It is the outermost layer of skin.
- It contains the stratum corneum.
- The stratum corneum ________.
- Is composed of mostly dead cells
- Is the innermost layer of the epidermis
- Contains melanocytes which give the skin color
- Both b and c
- The skin tans in response to sunlight because of the release of ________.
- Keratin
- Melanin
- Sebum
- Collagen
- ________ is a chronic skin condition marked thick, flaky, red patches of various sizes, covered with white, silvery patches.
- Psoriasis
- Atopic dermatitis (eczema)
- Herpes zoster
- Seborrheic dermatitis
- ________ is an eruption of extremely painful vesicles that occur in a band-like pattern along the course of a spinal nerve pathway.
- Scabies
- Pediculosis
- Herpes zoster
- Acne vulgaris
- The treatment of cellulitis includes ________.
- Incision and drainage
- Antibiotics
- Antifungal medications
- All of the above
- Which of the following is not found in the dermis of the skin?
- Connective tissue
- Nerve endings
- Melanocytes, which give the skin color
- Sweat glands
- The layer of epithelial tissue under the fingernail, actually part of the epidermis, is called ________.
- The nail body
- The cuticle
- The lunula
- The nail bed
- This type of gland secretes oil for the skin and hair.
- A sebaceous gland
- A sudoriferous gland
- An eccrine gland
- An apocrine gland
- Burns that are characterized blisters, severe pain, and swelling are classified as ________.
- First-degree burns
- Second-degree burns
- Third-degree burns
- Fourth-degree burns
- The rule of nines is used to ________.
- Determine the depth of burns
- Determine the color of burns
- Determine the body surface area burned
- Both a and b
- This skin infection is also called furuncles.
- Tinea
- Impetigo
- Warts
- Boils
- This skin infection is caused a papilloma virus.
- Tinea
- Impetigo
- Warts
- Boils
- Individuals with a malfunctioning adrenal gland may have what color of skin?
- Blue
- Red
- Yellow
- Bronze
- Folliculitis is inflammation of the hair follicles and is usually caused what type of bacteria?
- Streptococcus
- Staphylococcus
- Mycobacterium
- E. Coli
- Chicken pox is caused the ________ virus.
- Herpes varicella
- Herpes zoster
- Herpes simplex type 1
- Herpes simplex type 2
- Fever blisters or cold sores are caused the ________ virus.
- Herpes varicella
- Herpes zoster
- Herpes simplex type 1
- Herpes simplex type 2
- Genital herpes is caused the ________ virus.
- Herpes varicella
- Herpes zoster
- Herpes simplex type 1
- Herpes simplex type 2
- Shingles is caused the ________ virus.
- Herpes varicella
- Herpes zoster
- Herpes simplex type 1
- Herpes simplex type 2
- ________ are normally found on children’s hands and fingers.
- Plantar warts
- Common warts
- Genital warts
- None of the above
- ________ are found on the sole of the foot and tend to grow inward exhibiting a smooth surface.
- Plantar warts
- Common warts
- Genital warts
- None of the above
- ________ are highly contagious and sexually transmitted.
- Plantar warts
- Common warts
- Genital warts
- None of the above
- ________ is the most common type of fungal skin infection and is highly contagious.
- Tinea corporis
- Tinea unguium
- Tinea cruris
- Tinea pedis
- ________ is a fungal infection of the groin and scrotal areas that mainly affects men.
- Tinea corporis
- Tinea unguium
- Tinea cruris
- Tinea pedis
- ________ is incorrectly called ringworm.
- Tinea corporis
- Tinea unguium
- Tinea cruris
- Tinea pedis
- ________ is a condition in which a fungal infection is involved with either fingernails or toenails.
- Tinea corporis
- Tinea unguium
- Tinea cruris
- Tinea pedis
- Cellulitis is an inflammatory condition of the skin and subcutaneous tissue caused what bacteria?
- Streptococcus
- Staphylococcus
- Mycobacterium
- E. Coli
- A burn victim comes into your local Emergency Room and you are helping to assess the extent of their burns. In your assessment, you notice that the patient has burns on their head and neck, their right arm, right leg, and the front of the torso. You determine that the patient has burns over ________ % of their body.
- 45
- 63
- 54
- 36
Short Answer
Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question.
- The layer in which epidermal cells are born is known as the ____________.
- The outermost surface of the skin is known as the ____________.
- _________ are responsible for your skin color.
- ____________ glands secrete oil.
- Fat cells are known as ____________.
- Cells which can develop into connective tissue are called ____________.
- Two factors when assessing burns are ____________ and area damaged.
- A first degree burn penetrates through the _________________.
- Sublingually means under the ____________.
- Hair is composed of fibrous protein called ____________.
- ________ or bilirubin is the substance that gives skin a yellow hue.
- Hair stands on end in an attempt to regulate ________________.
- A(n) ____________ is a crack or groove in the skin.
- This __________________ layer of the skin regenerates easily after injury.
- A boil is also called a(n) ____________.
- The basal layer of the epidermis is known as ________.
- The front of the ________ is considered to be 18% of the skin surface area.
- Hair is composed of fibrous protein called ________.
- When blood vessels get larger in diameter it is known as ________.
- When blood vessels get smaller in diameter it is known as ________.
- A(n) ________ or hive is a small, raised, round area on the skin that sometimes itches.
- Warts, or ________, are caused the papilloma virus.
- Alopecia is the term for any type of ________ loss.
- Lyme disease involves multiple body systems as a result of a bacterial ________ that is spread the bite of a deer tick.
- Severe burns require healing at an intensity the body ________ normally achieve on its own.
- Trapped sebum can stagnate and dry out, becoming darkened. This is called a(n) ________.
- Ideally a wound heals from the inside, working its way toward the outside or ________.
- When accessing burns, there are two factors: the ________ of the burn and the size of the area burned.
- Initially the patient with third degree burns will feel no ________.
- Herpes is a lifelong virus that produces skin inflammation (lesions) in the form of ________.
- As bilirubin builds up in the body, ________ occurs, giving the skin a deeper yellow color.
- ________ is characterized the “bull’s eye” rash as a result of a bacterial infection that is spread via the bite of the deer tick.
- ________ is a condition in which a fungal infection is involved with either fingernails or toenails.
- A mass of excessive scar tissue that has a raised and firm, irregular shape is called a(n) ________.
- The hair that you see is called the shaft, and the root extends down into the dermis to the ________.
- The sebaceous gland secretes ________, an oily substance that coats the follicle and works its way to the skin’s surface.
- Tiny mites that burrow into the skin to lay eggs cause a condition known as ________.
- ________ is the body’s attempt to get as much “hot” blood exposed to a cooler surrounding environment so the heat radiates away from the body.
- Turning and padding are important in the prevention of decubitus ________.
- Excessive bruising could indicate skin, ________, or circulatory problems as well as physical abuse.
- Folliculitis presents with formations of small ________ that surround the follicle.
- Warts or ________ are caused the papilloma virus, which causes a hypertrophy of the keratin cells in the skin.
- Cellulitis, if left untreated, can lead to life threatening conditions such as ________.
- A first-degree burn has damaged only the ________ layer of skin, the epidermis, and is classified as a partial-thickness burn.
- A fourth-degree burn goes all the way to the ________.
- A second-degree burn involves the entire depth of the ________ and a portion of the dermis and can cause blistering.
- A third-degree burn affects all three of the skin ________ and is classified as a full-thickness burn.
- A(n) ________ is a classic example of a first-degree burn.
- ________ is the term for an infestation with lice that is the result of direct contact with a person infested with lice or sharing objects that may be infested.
- ________ is the term for any type of hair loss, and can be acute or chronic.
- A(n) ________ is a pathologically altered piece of tissue that can include a wound or injury of a single infected patch of skin.
- ________ or hives are itchy wheals surrounded a red inflamed area.
True/False
Write ‘T’ if the statement is true and ‘F’ if the statement is false.
____ 1. ‑The stratum basale is the outermost surface of the skin.
____ 2. Carotene gives a bluish hue to the skin.
____ 3. ‑Second degree burns involve the entire depth of the epidermis and a portion of the dermis.
____ 4. ‑First degree burns affect all three of the skin layers.
____ 5. ‑Each upper limb is considered 9% of the body skin surface area.
____ 6. Keratinization softens cells.
____ 7. ‑The part of the hair that you see outside the body is the follicle.
____ 8. ‑The white, half-moon shaped area of your finger nail is called the cuticle.
____ 9. An infected blackhead is a pustule.
____10. ‑As your temperature rises during activity, your body signals blood vessels to constrict.
____11. ‑Muscles in your skin are called arrector pili.
____12. ‑The most dangerous type of skin cancer is basal cell carcinoma.
____13. A polyp is a small tumor with a stem.
____14. ‑A vesicle is a small, fluid-filled, raised spot on the surface of the skin.
____15. ‑Eczema is a disorder that results primarily from an allergic reaction.
Essay
Write your answer in the space provided or on a separate sheet of paper.
- Distinguish between first, second and third degree burns.
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____________________________________________
____________________________________________
____________________________________________
- Explain the journey of an epidermal cell from birth to death.
____________________________________________
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- Describe how transdermal medication works.
____________________________________________
____________________________________________
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- How do we assess peripheral perfusion?
____________________________________________
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____________________________________________
- How is hair used in forensics?
____________________________________________
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Chapter 9
Multiple Choice
Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.
- The part of the nervous system which is located outside the brain and spinal cord is called the ____________ system.
- Endocrine
- Central nervous
- Sensory
- Peripheral nervous
- The autonomic system is divided into which two systems?
- Somatic, autonomic
- Sympathetic, parasympathetic
- Motor, sensory
- Input, output
- Myelin is a lipid insulation produced the ________.
- Microglia
- Oligodendrocytes
- Astrocytes
- Ependymal cells
- Which part of the neuron is responsible for cell metabolism?
- Body
- Dendrite
- Axon
- Synapse
- Neurons with the ability to monitor the environment are called ____________ neurons.
- Accessory
- Motor
- Sensory
- Output
- Neurons are able to generate tiny electrical currents changing the ____________ of their membranes.
- Composition
- Shape
- Pathway
- Permeability
- If a cell is more positively charged than it is when resting, it is said to be ________.
- Refractory
- Repolarized
- Depolarized
- Polarized
- A cell which is more negatively charged than at rest is ________.
- Polarized
- Hyperpolarized
- Depolarized
- Refractory
- Impulses are conducted rapidly if ____________ is present.
- Calcium
- Sodium
- Myelin
- Spinal fluid
- Which of the following is a medical disorder in which the myelin in the CNS has been destroyed ________.
- Multiple sclerosis
- Muscular dystrophy
- Guillain-Barré’ syndrome
- Myasthenia gravis
- The nerves going to the upper limbs join the spinal cord at the ____________ region.
- Cervical
- Thoracic
- Lumbar
- Sacral
- The third, innermost layer of the meninges is called the ________.
- Dura mater
- Arachnoid mater
- Pia mater
- Epidural mater
- Medication is often injected into the ____________ space to alleviate pain.
- Vertebral
- Epidural
- Subdural
- Subarachnoid
- Which part of the spinal cord carries sensory information?
- Commissure
- Ventral root
- Column
- Dorsal root
- Which spinal cord tracts carry sensory information?
- Superficial
- Ventral
- Ascending
- Inferior
- Acute treatment for spinal cord injury includes ________.
- Ice
- Heat
- Immobilization
- Physical therapy
- Which of the following is not one of the three broad categories of causes in peripheral neuropathy?
- Trauma
- Paralysis
- Systemic
- Infection/autoimmune
- A quadriplegic with damage high in the cervical spinal cord may have a paralyzed diaphragm, such that the patient cannot ________ on his own.
- Breathe
- Swallow food
- Close their eyes
- Speak
- The autonomic nervous system is a subdivision of the ________.
- Central nervous system
- Sympathetic nervous system
- Peripheral nervous system
- Parasympathetic nervous system
- Dendrites ________.
- Are usually highly branched
- Carry impulses away from the cell body
- Are usually surrounded myelin
- All of the above
- Sensory neurons are also called ________.
- Interneurons
- Input neurons
- Output neurons
- Glia cells
- Neurons that carry information between neurons are called ________.
- Interneurons
- Efferent neurons
- Motor neurons
- Afferent neurons
- This type of glia cell produces myelin for cells in the brain ________.
- Microglia
- Oligodendrocytes
- Astrocytes
- Interneurons
- Inflammation of the membranes covering the brain and spinal cord is called ________.
- Encephalitis
- Meningitis
- Blepharitis
- Polyneuritis
- This type of glia cell attacks microbes and removes debris.
- Microglia
- Oligodendrocyte
- Astroglia
- Neurilemma
- Which of the following statements is not true of multiple sclerosis?
- It is considered a myelin disorder.
- Patients may have disturbances in vision, balance, speech, or movement.
- Most patients are initially diagnosed with relapsing-remitting MS, but at least 50% of them will progress to the chronic progressive form.
- It affects 2,000–4,000 people in the United States.
- When a cell becomes stimulated (excited) ________.
- The interior of the neuron becomes more negative
- Sodium gates in the cell membrane close
- Sodium gates in the cell membrane spring open
- The entire neuron remains at rest
- The outermost of the meninges is the ________.
- Pia mater
- Choroid plexus
- Arachnoid mater
- Dura mater
- Loss of motor and sensory control of the trunk of the body and lower extremities as a result of a spinal cord injury describes __________.
- Peripheral neuropathy
- Quadriplegia
- Paraplegia
- A slipped disk
- This disease is characterized ascending paralysis ________.
- Myasthenia gravis
- Polio
- Guillain Barré syndrome
- Charcot Marie Tooth disorder
- This disease is characterized progressive fluctuating muscle weakness starting in the facial or eye muscles ________.
- Myasthenia gravis
- Polio
- Guillain Barré syndrome
- Charcot Marie Tooth disorder
- Patients who have an injury to their cervical spinal cord segment and are paralyzed in all four limbs are known as ________.
- Paraplegics
- Quadriplegics
- Suffering from Guillain Barré syndrome
- None of the above
- Patients with injuries to the thoracic spinal cord segment with two paralyzed legs are said to be ________.
- Paraplegics
- Quadriplegics
- Suffering from Guillain Barré syndrome
- None of the above
- A potentially fatal condition is an infection of the meninges called ________.
- Polio
- Meningectomy
- Meningitis
- All of the above
- This inflammatory condition is a result of repetitive motion and leads to numbness in the palm and fingers ________.
- carpal tunnel syndrome
- meningitis
- myasthenia gravis
- botulism
- An injection of a local anesthetic into the spinal column is called a(n) ________.
- epiphysis
- epidural
- subdural
- cutaneous
- Spinal root directional terms are ________:
- anterior and posterior
- superior and inferior
- Dorsal and ventral
- distal and proximal
Short Answer
Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question.
- The ____________ or parasympathetic branch of the nervous system deals with maintenance of homeostasis.
- The glial cells which remove debris are called ____________.
- The ___________ horn contains motor neurons.
- There are twelve pairs of ________ nerves.
- The spinal ____________, projecting from both sides of the spinal cord in pairs, fuse to form spinal nerves.
- Branches and recombinations of nerves are called ____________.
- ____________ are the simplest form of motor output.
- During ______________ of the action potential, sodium ions are flowing into a cell.
- The ________________ tract carries pain and temperature information.
- The input side of the nervous system is known as ____________.
- The period when a cell is unable to accept another stimulus is the ____________ period.
- Bare spots between adjacent cells are called nodes of ____________.
- Tiny sacs at nerve terminals, called ____________, release contents from the cell when calcium flows in.
- ____________ inhibit the release of pain neurotransmitters.
- The membrane that is like a spider web is called ____________.
- The lipid ________ increases action potential conduction speed.
- Guillain-Barré syndrome is a rapid onset paralysis caused inflammation of ________ nerves.
- Repetitive motion can cause ________ syndrome in the wrists.
- A(n) ________ is a group of nerve cell bodies outside the CNS.
- Preganglionic neurons release the neurotransmitter ________ (Do not use the abbreviation).
- Following a spinal cord injury, the difference between being able to breathe on your own or requiring a(n) ________ is literally a matter of centimeters.
- Bruises to the spinal cord may resolve with time and rehabilitation, but a severed, or crushed spinal cord is usually a(n) ________ injury.
- A very common form of peripheral neuropathy caused repetitive motion is ________.
- Epidural injections of steroids are sometimes prescribed for patients with chronic lower back injuries to relieve pain, and ________.
- The most common systemic disorder that causes peripheral neuropathy is ________.
- The whole series of permeability changes within the cell and the resultant changes in charge across the cell membrane is called the ________.
- Between adjacent glial cells on axons are tiny bare spots called ________.
- The neurotransmitter group ________ inhibit release of pain neurotransmitters.
- The ________ is located in a hollow tube running inside the vertebral column from the foramen magnum to the second lumbar (L2) vertebrae.
- ________ is caused an autoimmune attack on the myelin in the central nervous system.
- Guillain Barré syndrome is the autoimmune destruction of the ________ nervous system myelin and often occurs after a viral infection.
- ________ is an autoimmune attack of the acetylcholine receptor at the neuromuscular junction.
- ________ is caused destruction of ventral horn motor neurons poliomyelitis virus.
- ________ is usually mechanical injury to spinal cord tissue.
- ________ damage to peripheral nerves may be due to injury or illness.
True/False
Write ‘T’ if the statement is true and ‘F’ if the statement is false.
____ 1. ‑The autonomic system controls voluntary movement.
____ 2. Oligodendrocytes make myelin.
____ 3. ‑Potassium ions move across neurons during depolarization.
____ 4. There are eight cervical nerves.
____ 5. ‑The segments of the spinal cord are named for their function.
____ 6. Guillain-Barré’ syndrome is incurable.
____ 7. ‑SSRIs prevent the clean up of a neurotransmitter.
____ 8. ‑The peripheral nervous system is everything outside the brain and spinal cord.
____ 9. ‑Myasthenia gravis is an autoimmune disorder in which the immune system attacks and destroys acetylcholine receptors.
____10. ‑A synapse is a junction between two nodes of Ranvier.
____11. ‑Electrical synapses use neurotransmitters to send information to other cells.
____12. ‑Dendrites generate and send signals to other cells.
____13. Action potentials are “all or none.”
____14. Cell bodies are myelinated.
____15. Myelinated axons are white.
Essay
Write your answer in the space provided or on a separate sheet of paper.
- Explain how multiple sclerosis affects the body.
____________________________________________
____________________________________________
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____________________________________________
- List the steps in chemical synaptic transmission.
____________________________________________
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____________________________________________
____________________________________________
- Define the purpose of the following cells: microglia, oligodendrocytes, astrocytes, Schwann cells, and ependymal cells.
____________________________________________
____________________________________________
____________________________________________
____________________________________________
- List the three phases of the action potential.
____________________________________________
____________________________________________
____________________________________________
____________________________________________
- List the meninges and explain their anatomy.
____________________________________________
____________________________________________
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Chapter 10
Multiple Choice
Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.
- What is the largest part of the brain?
- Cerebellum
- Cerebrum
- Brain stem
- Hypothalamus
- The grooves and ridges of the brain are known as ____________.
- Hemispheres
- Lobes
- Convolutions
- Meninges
- Heart beat, breathing, and the cardiovascular system are controlled the ____________.
- Medulla oblongata
- Midbrain
- Cerebellum
- Cerebrum
- The internal anatomy of the brain has which structure?
- White matter only
- White matter surrounded gray matter
- Gray matter only
- Gray matter surrounded white matter
- The right and left hemisphere of the cerebrum are connected the ____________.
- Postcentral gyrus
- Precentral gyrus
- Corpus callosum
- Ventricles
- Which structure in the diencephalon relays information to the cerebrum?
- Thalamus
- Hypothalamus
- Pineal body
- Pituitary gland
- What cranial nerve is chiefly responsible for eye movements?
- Olfactory
- Facial
- Hypoglossal
- Oculomotor
- What number cranial nerve is the vagus nerve?
- X
- II
- VIII
- XII
- To what sense does somatic sensation refer?
- Taste
- Touch
- Smell
- Vision
- Which tract carries fine touch and vibration to the cerebral cortex?
- Dorsal column tract
- Spinothalamic tract
- Spinocerebellar tract
- Ventral column tract
- Once touch information is sent to the brain, understanding will occur in the ____________ area.
- Sensory association relay
- Ganglionic association
- Somatic sensory cortex
- Somatic sensory association
- After a plan for movement has been developed, it leaves the ____________ and connects with neurons in the thalamus.
- Nuclei
- Limbic system
- Motor cortex
- Spinal tract
- Where are the neurons for the autonomic system located?
- Corpus callosum
- Spinal cord and brain stem
- Cerebral cortex
- Inside neurotransmitters
- A woman falls down a flight of stairs carrying a large box. She is admitted to the hospital paralyzed on the right side and unable to speak. Where is her injury?
- Spinal cord
- Temporal lobe
- Frontal lobe
- Brainstem
- During surgery, general anesthesia inhibits the ____________, causing unconsciousness in the patient.
- Reticular system
- Basal nuclei
- Limbic system
- Hypothalamus
- Which of these is a type of paralysis?
- Spastic
- Bivalvular
- Reflexive
- Radical
- Some patients with a severe case of ________ must be kept on a ventilator until the paralysis resolves.
- Guillain Barré syndrome
- Muscular dystrophy
- Multiple sclerosis
- Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis
- A subdural hematoma would be between the ________.
- Arachnoid mater and subarachnoid
- Dura mater and the arachnoid mater
- Dura and vertebral column
- Arachnoid and pia mater
- A brain injury with swelling and bleeding with possible severe hemorrhaging (hematoma) is known as a ________.
- Concussion
- Contusion
- TIA
- CVA
- Which of the following statements is not true of the cerebellum?
- It is considered the “little brain.”
- It lies under the occipital lobe of the cerebrum.
- It is responsible for sensory and motor coordination and balance.
- It helps regulate water balance and sleep cycles.
- The somatic nervous system carries impulses from the brain and spinal cord to ________.
- Cardiac muscle tissue
- Skeletal muscles
- Smooth muscles
- All of the above
- A mild brain injury is commonly known as a ________.
- Contusion
- Hemorrhage
- Hematoma
- Concussion
- A ________, which is swelling and bleeding at the site of injury, is more serious than a concussion.
- Convulsion
- Hemorrhage
- Hematoma
- None of the above
- A ________ is caused disruption of blood flow to a portion of the brain due to either hemorrhage or blood clot.
- Cerebrovascular accident
- Stroke
- a and b only
- None of the above
- A mini stroke is known as a ________.
- TIA
- Transient necrotic attack
- Stroke
- a and b only
- A ________ is a pool of blood between any of the layers of meninges and the skull.
- Contusion
- Hemorrhage
- Hematoma
- Concussion
- This is the most common cause of dementia among people 65 years or older ________.
- Alzheimer’s disease
- Parkinson’s disease
- Dementia
- Travis’ disease
- Which fissure divides the brain into a left and right hemisphere?
- transverse
- longitudinal
- medial
- sagittal
- The lobe responsible for vision ________:
- occipital
- frontal
- parietal
- medial
- The lobe responsible for taste ________:
- frontal
- parietal
- temporal
- occipital
- This structure is responsible for the secretion of melatonin ________.
- pituitary gland
- thalamus
- hypothalamus
- pineal body
- Hydocephalus is a result of an excess of what fluid?
- blood
- CSF
- CNS
- ALS
- A group of nerve cell bodies outside the CNS is called a ________.
- ganglion
- glia
- dendrites
- axons
- The system that controls mood ________.
- reticular
- somatic
- sympathetic
- limbic
- A non-progressive movement disorder exhibiting classic spastic paralysis
- muscular dystrophy
- Huntington’s disease
- cerebral palsy
- CVA
Short Answer
Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question.
- The _______ is divided into two hemispheres.
- The ____________ lobes are responsible for conscious thought.
- Damage to the _____________ lobes leads to sensory perception problems.
- Heartbeat is controlled in the ____________.
- The size of the map of a body part in the postcentral gyrus is determined the _____________ of the body part.
- Hydrocephalus is treated medication and inserting a(n) ____________.
- Cross communication between the right and left sides of the brain is through the ____________.
- The diencephalon includes the ____________, hypothalamus, pineal body, and pituitary gland.
- The pineal body secretes the hormone ____________.
- Dizziness is one symptom of damage to the _________________ cranial nerve.
- The XII cranial nerve, the ____________, is under the tongue.
- A(n) ____________ is a group of nerve cell bodies outside the CNS.
- Preganglionic neurons release the neurotransmitter ____________.
- A stroke is also known as a(n) ____________ (Do not use abbreviation).
- An accumulation of blood between the dura mater and arachnoid space is called a(n)____________.
- Emotions are integrated in the ________ lobes.
- Brain cavities are called ________.
- The X cranial nerve is the ________ nerve.
- Brain damage similar to that caused traumatic brain injury is caused a lack of oxygen, strokes, or brain ________.
- The ventricles of the brain, the central canal of the spinal cord, and the subarachnoid space, surrounding both parts of the CNS, are all filled with ________(CSF).
- The ________ nerve is sensory cranial nerve, responsible for hearing and balance.
- The ________ is an anatomical/physiologic protective structure of the brain believed to consist of walls of capillaries in the CNS and surrounding glial membranes.
- ________(CP) is a permanent, non-progressive set of motor deficits diagnosed in infants and young children, generally thought to be due to damage to the motor cortex.
- The ________ division of the autonomic nervous system controls the flight-or-fight response.
- ________ is a condition of excess CSF in brain due to trauma, birth defects, tumors, etc.
- Damage to brain tissue due to mechanical injury, lack of oxygen, or brain hemorrhage causes ________ brain injury.
- Risk factors for ________ include premature birth, low birth weight, developmental abnormalities, and perinatal brain injury.
True/False
Write ‘T’ if the statement is true and ‘F’ if the statement is false.
____ 1. ‑Gyri and sulci are known as convolutions.
____ 2. Parietal lobes are responsible for vision.
____ 3. ‑The pons is inferior to the medulla oblongata.
____ 4. ‑The midbrain is the most superior portion of the brainstem.
____ 5. ‑The diencephalon controls hormone levels.
____ 6. Thirst is regulated in the thalamus.
____ 7. ‑Respiratory arrest is a clear sign of brain damage after a fall.
____ 8. The optic nerve controls smell.
____ 9. Pain is perceived in the skin.
____10. ‑The limbic system controls emotions and moods.
____11. ‑The parasympathetic system controls the “fight or flight” response.
____12. ‑A brain tumor in the frontal lobe might cause significant changes in personality.
____13. ‑Paralysis is the inability to control voluntary movement.
____14. ‑Cerebral palsy usually begins after age 50.
____15. Ministrokes are called “TIAs.”
Essay
Write your answer in the space provided or on a separate sheet of paper.
- Explain why cerebral spinal fluid balance is important in the brain.
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- List the twelve cranial nerves.
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- Explain how we interpret touch.
____________________________________________
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- Explain why hands, lips, and head have so many neurons.
____________________________________________
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- List five common effects of a stroke.
____________________________________________
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Chapter 11
Multiple Choice
Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.
- Which of the following is listed as one of our visceral senses?
- Touch
- Pain
- Hunger
- Heat
- The ____________ of the eye works similarly to the shutter of a camera.
- Eyelid
- Lens
- Cornea
- Iris
- Your tears act as a lubricant and ____________ to protect the eyes from microorganisms.
- Antiseptic
- Moisture
- Bath
- Glaze
- The cornea is found within the ____________ of the eye.
- Sclera
- Choroid
- Retina
- Conjunctiva
- The eye receives most of its nourishment from the vessels within the ____________.
- Retina
- Sclera
- Conjunctiva
- Choroid
- The vision center of the brain is located in the ____________ lobe.
- Optic
- Occipital
- Temporal
- Hypothalamus
- Light passes to the eye through what opening?
- Eyeball
- Lens
- Pupil
- Iris
- To help diagnose sleep disorders, doctors will measure which stage of sleep?
- REM
- Myopia
- PERLA
- Amblyopia
- What are the three tiny bones located in the middle ear?
- Pinnas
- Cerumen
- Ossicles
- Cochleas
- The ____________ contain sensors necessary for equilibrium.
- Cochlea
- Semicircular canals
- Vestibule
- Incus
- The bony labyrinth is another name for the ____________.
- Auditory nerve
- Outer ear
- Middle ear
- Inner ear
- The process of sound waves traveling to the brain is known as ____________ conduction.
- Sound
- Sensorineural
- Bone
- Neural
- ____________ is the name given for the distinct taste of glutamates.
- Gustatory
- Umami
- Meniere
- Tinnitus
- Tactile corpuscles is the name given to the receptors for which sense?
- Taste
- Smell
- Hearing
- Touch
- Experiencing pain in the right shoulder due to liver disease is an example of ____________ pain.
- Referred
- Disguised
- Phantom
- Pseudo
- Amblyopia develops most commonly in ________.
- Adults
- Children
- Patients with astigmatism
- The elderly
- A patient who has itching in the ears due to a buildup of ear wax could be said to have too much ________.
- Cerumen
- Fluid
- Eustachian
- Cochlea
- Clouding of the eye lens caused protein clumping is called ________.
- Blepharitis
- A cataract
- Clouding
- Astigmatism
- Receptors of the ________ senses receive the signal of nausea.
- Visceral
- Cutaneous
- Accommodation
- Labyrinthitis
- Cataract formation is attributed to all of these except ________.
- Aging
- Gender
- Congenital defects
- Trauma
- In diabetic retinopathy, increased blood sugar damages the ________ in the retina of the eye.
- Sclera
- Lens
- Conjunctiva
- Blood vessels
- All of the following are symptoms of otitis media except ________.
- Sinus infection
- Pus
- Edema
- Pain
- Sight can be considered ________.
- A general sense
- A special sense
- A chemoreceptor
- Both b and c
- Which of the following is not associated with the retina?
- Rods
- Lens
- Cones
- Photopigments
- The external ear ends at the ________.
- Auricle
- Tympanic membrane
- External auditory canal
- Tragus
- Which of the following is not a bone of the middle ear?
- Cochlea
- Stapes
- Incus
- Malleus
- Which of the following structures in the inner ear is the organ of hearing?
- Bony labyrinth
- Semicircular canal
- Vestibule
- Cochlea
- A defect of the ________ results in difficulty in visual detection of color and fine detail.
- Lens
- Cones
- Rods
- Cones and rods
- The sense of touch can be considered ________.
- A general sense
- A special sense
- A chemoreceptor
- Both b and c
- Receptors used to locate body parts are considered ________.
- A special sense
- A chemoreceptor
- A thermoreceptor
- A proprioceptor
- Which of the following is not one of the three layers of tissue that forms the eyeball?
- Conjunctiva
- Sclera
- Choroid
- Retina
- The sensor receptive cells in the retina that function best in dim light and enable night vision are the ________.
- Iris
- Pupil
- Rods
- Cones
- An inflammation of the thin, transparent membrane covering the visible portion of the sclera and lining the inside of the eyelids results in ________.
- Conjunctivitis
- Choroiditis
- Cornea abrasion
- Lens distortion
- A cloudy or opaque area in the normally clear lens of the eye is called a ________.
- Stye
- Detachment
- Cataract
- None of the above
- Vision impairment as a result of old age and the loss of elasticity in the lens is called ________.
- Astigmatism
- Myopia
- Presbyopia
- Diplopia
- A chronic disease of the inner ear marked a recurring syndrome of vertigo, tinnitus, and progressive hearing loss is called ________.
- Cholesteatoma
- Otosclerosis
- Meniere’s disease
- Mastoiditis
- Which of the following is attributed to the development of cataracts?
- Trauma
- Congenital defects
- Aging
- All of the above
- If left untreated, cataracts can lead to what?
- Blindness
- Presbyopia
- Myopia
- Hyperopia
- Farsightedness is also known as ________.
- Hyperopia
- Myopia
- Presbyopia
- Amblyopia
- Farsightedness that is due to the aging process is known as ________.
- Hyperopia
- Myopia
- Presbyopia
- Amblyopia
- Nearsightedness is also known as ________.
- Hyperopia
- Myopia
- Presbyopia
- Amblyopia
- Lazy eye is also known as ________.
- Hyperopia
- Myopia
- Presbyopia
- Amblyopia
- Swimmer’s ear is also known as ________.
- External otitis
- Otitis Media
- Internal otitis
- None of the above
- Symptoms of otitis media include all of the following except ________.
- Pus
- Arthralgia
- Edema
- Pain
- A feeling of dizziness and or whirling in space is called ________.
- Vertigo
- Purulence
- Eczema
- Tinnitus
- Ringing in the ears is also known as ________.
- Vertigo
- Purulence
- Eczema
- Tinnitus
Short Answer
Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question.
- Skin is the location of receptors for your sense of _________________.
- The ____________ is the colored part of the eye.
- The vitreous humor is in the ____________ chamber of the eye.
- The globe-shaped organ of vision is the ____________.
- The ____________ is the opening through which light passes into the eye.
- ____________ is a disease characterized increased pressure in the eye.
- The _______________ contains light-sensitive neurons.
- Lazy eye is called ____________.
- The signals from the eye are carried on the cranial nerve known as __________________.
- Pink eye is called ____________.
- What you perceive as taste is mainly affected the sense of ____________________.
- The bones of the middle ear are the malleus, incus, and ____________.
- The ____________ or auricle is the external part of the ear.
- The eardrum is also called the ____________ membrane.
- The tubes that connect the middle ear to the pharynx are called ____________ tubes.
- Nearsightedness is called ________.
- If the eye cannot focus on nearobjects, the condition is called ________ or hyperopia.
- A clouded lens is called a(n)________.
- There are times when an optometrist needs to dilate the pupils for better ________ of inner eye parts during the exam.
- Acute conjunctivitis is commonly called ________ aureus.
- In glaucoma, peripheral vision is reduced, which eventually progresses to ________ vision and then blindness.
- Otitis media can perforate the ________ membrane (eardrum).
- Labyrinthitis is an inflammation of the ________ ear and is usually caused infections and can cause vertigo.
- Hyperopia is when the eye cannot focus properly on ________ objects.
- Tinnitus can occur as a result of chronic exposure to loud ________.
- The ________ or colored part of the eye helps regulate the amount of light that enters the eye.
- The projecting part of the ear which collects and directs sound waves into the auditory canal is called the pinna or ________.
- ________ (farsightedness) occurs when the eye cannot focus properly on nearobjects.
- The ________ begins in the inner ear and carries the amplified vibrations from the tympanic ossicles.
- Continued sensory stimulation causes some sensors to desensitize in an interesting phenomenon called ________.
- Pain receptors are also called ________.
- Pain is felt for as long as the stimulus is there that is c.ausing it or unless a person is under ________.
- The ________ glands produce tears, spread over the eye surfaces blinking, which are needed for constant cleansing and lubrication.
- The sclera contains a specialized portion called the ________, which is transparent to allow light rays to pass into the eye.
- ________ is caused increased pressure in the fluid of the eye, which interferes with optic nerve functioning.
- ________ is an inflammation of the membrane that lines the eye characterized pink or red swollen eyes.
- The acute infective phase of conjunctivitis is commonly called ________.
- A(n) ________ is a condition in which the lens loses its flexibility and transparency and light cannot pass through the clouded lens.
- ________ is caused increased pressure in the fluid of the eye, which interferes with optic nerve functioning.
- ________ is an acute infection of the middle ear, commonly caused a bacteria or virus, and is frequently found in infants and young children.
- ________ is frequently associated with an upper respiratory infection such as the common cold.
- If left untreated, otitis media can cause a perforation of the ________ or eardrum.
- ________ is an inflammation of the inner ear and is usually caused infections.
- ________ is a chronic condition that affects the labyrinth and leads to progressive hearing loss and vertigo.
- ________ can be either partial or complete and is caused a variety of conditions, ranging from inflammation and scarring of the tympanic membrane to auditory nerve and brain damage.
- Clinically, ________ can occur as a result of chronic exposure to loud noises, Meniere’s disease, some medications, wax build-up, or various disturbances to the auditory nerve.
True/False
Write ‘T’ if the statement is true and ‘F’ if the statement is false.
____ 1. The malleus is the outer ear.
____ 2. The sense of smell is called gustatory.
____ 3. ‑Sound is transmitted to the brain hair cells.
____ 4. ‑The signal is carried from the ear to the brain the optic nerve.
____ 5. ‑Bacteria from the nasal cavity can travel to the ear.
____ 6. Lacrimal glands are endocrine glands.
____ 7. ‑Tears act as an antiseptic to decrease germs in the eyeball.
____ 8. The vitreous humor is watery.
____ 9. Rods are active in dim light.
____10. ‑Photopigments undergo chemical changes when light hits them.
____11. ‑The innermost layer of the eye is the cornea.
____12. ‑Ciliary muscles surround the lens in the eye.
____13. The lens is located behind the pupil.
____14. ‑PERLA stands for pupils, equal, rotating to the light, and accommodating.
____15. REM sleep refers to rapid eye movement.
Essay
Write your answer in the space provided or on a separate sheet of paper.
- List the five senses and their organs.
____________________________________________
____________________________________________
____________________________________________
____________________________________________
- Describe how your eye is like a camera.
____________________________________________
____________________________________________
____________________________________________
____________________________________________
- Follow the path of sound from air to the brain.
____________________________________________
____________________________________________
____________________________________________
____________________________________________
- Describe why children get otitis media.
____________________________________________
____________________________________________
____________________________________________
____________________________________________
- Describe referred and phantom pain.
____________________________________________
____________________________________________
____________________________________________
____________________________________________
Chapter 12
Multiple Choice
Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.
- Which of the endocrine organs can effectively control the pituitary gland?
- Pancreas
- Hypothalamus
- Thyroid
- Pineal
- Chemical messengers released directly into the bloodstream, with the ability to affect cells for hours or days, are called ________.
- Neurotransmitters
- Dendrites
- Hormones
- Sensory cells
- A specific type of hormone, called ____________, has the ability to interact directly with the cell’s DNA.
- Adrenaline
- Protein
- Sebum
- Steroids
- A standard level, known as the ____________, is necessary to maintain the body’s homeostasis.
- Set point
- Target level
- Norm
- Quotient
- When a patient is experiencing a fever, the ____________ resets the body’s temperature set point.
- Brain
- Hypothalamus
- Adrenal gland
- Pituitary gland
- Which of the following hormones are directly controlled the nervous system?
- Oxytocin
- Cortisol
- Epinephrine
- Insulin
- One way in which the body will cope with increased stress is to increase the secretion of
- Cortisol
- Norepinephrine
- Oxytocin
- Prolactin
- Which hormone, produced the pituitary gland, is responsible for decreased urination?
- Prolactin
- Antidiuretic hormone
- Adrenocorticotropic hormone
- Luteinizing hormone
- The ____________ is part of the diencephalon and is commonly called the “master gland.”
- Adrenal
- Pineal
- Thyroid
- Pituitary
- The ____________ is divided into a posterior and anterior segment.
- Thyroid
- Thymus
- Pituitary
- Adrenal
- A stature disorder in which the body produces either too much or too little growth hormone is a disorder of which endocrine gland?
- Anterior pituitary
- Posterior pituitary
- Adrenal medulla
- Adrenal cortex
- Thyroxin and triiodothyronine, hormones necessary for cell metabolism, are produced in the ____________ gland.
- Pituitary
- Adrenal
- Thymus
- Thyroid
- ____________ gland is important in regulating the blood glucose.
- Thymus
- Pancreas
- Pineal
- Thyroid
- The ____________ glands are located above each kidney.
- Thyroid
- Adrenal
- Pineal
- Ovaries
- What is the name of the condition in which the body is not producing adequate amounts of insulin?
- Diabetes mellitus
- Diabetes insipidus
- Dwarfism
- Hyperthyroidism
- ________ steroids are a class of molecules that cause an increase in muscle mass.
- Anti-inflammatory
- Anabolic
- NSAIDs
- Metabolic
- Cushings’ disease causes weight ________ and Graves’ causes weight ________.
- Gain, loss
- Loss, loss
- Loss, gain
- Gain, gain
- The release of norepinephrine and epinephrine into the blood stream increases all of these except ________.
- Respiration
- Saliva
- Pulse or heart rate
- Blood pressure
- Prednisone can be used as an anti-inflammatory drug to treat ________.
- Severe allergies
- Rheumatoid arthritis
- Other chronic conditions
- All of the above
- The typical onset of type I diabetes is before ________.
- Puberty
- Age 40
- Age 5–6
- Age 10
- A woman is in labor but the uterine contractions stop. This could be caused insufficient ________ (a hormone).
- Oxytocin
- ADH
- Pituitary hormone
- Melatonin
- A deficiency in the release of vasopressin (antidiuretic hormone [ADH]) the posterior pituitary gland causes ________.
- Hypoglycemia
- Dwarfism
- Diabetes insipidus
- None of the above
- Treatment of diabetes mellitus includes ________.
- A controlled diet and exercise
- Insulin administration if needed
- Blood and urine testing
- All of the above
- Hypersecretion of GH that causes overgrowth of the hands and feet, abnormal thickening of the bones of the face, and excessive overgrowth of soft tissue, occurring in adulthood, is called ________.
- Acromegaly
- Gigantism
- Dwarfism
- All of the above
- Damage to the pituitary gland, which causes hypopituitarism, can result from ________.
- Radiation
- Surgical removal
- Tumors
- All of the above
- The master gland of the endocrine system is the ________.
- Thyroid gland
- Pituitary gland
- Adrenal gland
- None of the above
- Insulin and glucagon are produced the ________.
- Pancreas
- Thymus
- Adrenal cortex
- None of the above
- Hypersecretion of cortisol causes ________.
- Addison’s disease
- Cushing’s syndrome
- Myxedema
- None of the above
- Insufficient secretion of PTH the parathyroid gland is called ________.
- Hyperpituitarism
- Hypoparathyroidism
- Hyperparathyroidism
- Hypopituitarism
- The syndrome caused hypersecretion of the adrenal cortex, which results in excessive circulating cortisol levels, fatigue, muscular weakness, and changes in body appearance is called ________.
- Cushing’s syndrome
- Hashimoto thyroiditis
- Addison’s disease
- None of the above
- Which of the following statements is not true of the endocrine system?
- The organs of the endocrine system are widely dispersed in the body.
- All organs in the endocrine system are glands.
- Endocrine glands secrete their products into ducts leading to body cavities.
- Endocrine glands produce hormones.
- Dwarfism can be caused a ________.
- Hypersecretion of ACTH
- Hyposecretion of ACTH
- Hypersecretion of growth hormone
- Hyposecretion of growth hormone
- Which of the following is not true of oxytocin?
- It is produced in the thyroid gland.
- It causes the contractions of the uterus during labor.
- It is one of the few hormones that is regulated a positive feedback loop.
- It stimulates “milk letdown” in nursing mothers.
- Which of the following is true of the adrenal medulla?
- It responds to stimuli from the sympathetic nervous system.
- It helps produce the “fight-or-flight” response.
- It releases epinephrine.
- All of the above are true of the adrenal medulla.
- Which of the following is not true of the thymus gland?
- It is located in the neck.
- It is an endocrine gland.
- It produces thymosin.
- It is important in the body’s immune system.
- Which of the following is not true of the pineal gland?
- It is located in the brain.
- It produces melatonin.
- It helps regulate the body’s “biological clock.”
- All of the above are true of the pineal gland.
- A condition that is characterized the production of large amounts of very dilute urine is called?
- Diabetes insipidus
- Diabetes mellitus
- Gestational diabetes
- Juvenile diabetes
- A condition that is characterized a decrease in pituitary function caused tumors, surgery, radiation, or head injury is called ________.
- Hyperpituitarism
- Cushing’s syndrome
- Hypopituitarism
- Addison’s disease
- Which of the following hormones are not affected hypopituitarism?
- ACTH
- LH
- GH
- Oxytocin
- An overproduction of pituitary hormones is called ________.
- Cushing’s syndrome
- Addison’s disease
- Hyperpituitarism
- Hypopituitarism
- An over-production of cortisol causes ________.
- Cushing’s syndrome
- Addison’s disease
- Graves’ disease
- Hyperpituitarism
- All of the following are symptoms of Cushing’s syndrome except ________.
- Upper body obesity
- Round face
- Easy bruising
- Hypoglycemia
- Fatigue, feeling cold, dry skin, brittle nails, and leg cramps are all symptoms of which disease?
- Hyperthyroidism
- Hypothyroidism
- Addison’s disease
- Cushing’s syndrome
- Sweating, muscle tremors, tachycardia, and irritability are symptoms of which disease?
- Hyperthyroidism
- Hypothyroidism
- Addison’s disease
- Cushing’s syndrome
- Which of the following is an early symptom of hypoglycemia?
- Nervousness
- Weakness
- Difficulty speaking
- All of the above
- Symptoms of Addison’s disease include all of the following except ________.
- Low blood pressure
- High blood pressure
- Weight loss
- Excessive skin pigmentation
- In children, failure to attain normal height or abnormally slow growth are symptoms of ________.
- Gigantism
- Dwarfism
- Type II diabetes
- None of the above
Short Answer
Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question.
- The liver breaks down glycogen into ____________.
- If a diabetic checks her blood sugar and is ________ she should take some sugar.
- ____________ hormone stimulates tissue growth.
- The pancreas secretes insulin and ____________.
- A patient experiences agitation, increased heart rate and blood pressure. She thinks she is going insane. She has a hormone imbalance called _____________________.
- Chemical messengers released endocrine glands are called ____________.
- ____________ moves calcium into bones.
- ____________ feedback increases the magnitude of change.
- The ideal value for a body characteristic is called a(n) ____________.
- If a person is dehydrated they will secrete less ________________ hormone from the posterior pituitary.
- ____________ hormone stimulates sperm production.
- Uterine contractions are increased the hormone ____________.
- The ____________ gland is located in the upper thorax.
- The ___________________ secretes several vital steroid hormones.
- The ____________ within the brain controls hormone levels, but is not called the master gland.
- ________ mellitus is due to a decrease in insulin secretion or decreased sensitivity to insulin.
- The ________ gland secretes thyroxine.
- ________ tissue uses glucose from blood to form fat.
- Addison’s disease is caused insufficient production of ________ corticosteroids.
- Appropriate blood glucose levels are vital for cellular ________.
- If GH secretion is insufficient during childhood, children do not grow to the standard height. This is a type of ________.
- If stress becomes chronic, the secretion of ________ and cortisol, becomes pathological.
- Hypopituitarism causes loss of any or all anterior ________ hormones, including ACTH, GH, LH, and TSH, causing a variety of symptoms.
- Stature disorders result in well-below average height (called ________ ) or well-above normal height (called gigantism).
- Cushing’s syndrome is caused over-secretion of ________.
- The adrenal cortex makes dozens of steroid hormones known collectively as ________.
- Glucagon puts glucose into the bloodstream mainly directing the liver to release glucose stored in the form of ________.
- The ________ is largely responsible for maintaining blood sugar (glucose) levels at or near a set point.
- The adrenal glands are split into two regions: the adrenal cortex, an outer layer, and the ________, the middle of the gland.
- ________ triggers our sleep peaking at night and causing drowsiness.
- The ________ gland, located in the anterior portion of your neck, is responsible for secreting the hormones thyroxine (T4) and triiodothyronine (T3), under orders from the pituitary gland
- If any of the body’s dozens of homeostatic values become seriously disrupted, the control systems work to bring them back to set point. This process is called ________.
- One special class of hormones, ________, is particularly powerful because they can bind to sites inside cells passing easily through the target cell membrane.
- The male gonad is responsible for secreting the hormone ________.
- ________, the most common cause of hyperthyroidism, is also an autoimmune disorder.
- Hypopituitarism is characterized the loss of any or all ________ pituitary hormones.
- Stature disorders that result in well-below-average height are called ________.
- Oversecretion of growth hormone (GH) in adults, after bones have stopped growing, causes ________.
- The most common cause of hypothyroidism is ________.
- A common symptom of hyperthyroidism is ________.
- A(n) ________ is the enlargement of the thyroid and can be the result of either hypothyroidism or hyperthyroidism.
- ________ is the primary side effect of insulin therapy.
- ________ is caused insufficient production of adrenal corticosteroids.
- ________ causes excess cortisol in response to stressors.
- ________ levels are increased during periods of stress.
- Chronic stress causes both physiological and ________ changes.
True/False
Write ‘T’ if the statement is true and ‘F’ if the statement is false.
____ 1. Sweat glands are endocrine glands.
____ 2. ‑Melatonin is released the pineal gland.
____ 3. Ovaries secrete estrogen.
____ 4. Glucagon lowers blood sugar.
____ 5. ‑Hormonal targets are distant from secretion in the endocrine system.
____ 6. ‑Follicle Stimulating Hormone is secreted in the ovaries.
____ 7. Cortisol is secreted the adrenal gland.
____ 8. ‑Renin is secreted the anterior pituitary.
____ 9. Prolactin stimulates milk production.
____10. ‑Restlessness is a symptom of hyperthyroidism.
____11. Hypoglycemia is high blood sugar.
____12. ‑Left untreated, diabetes mellitus can be fatal.
____13. Epinephrine is also known as adrenalin.
____14. ‑Norepinephrine is both a hormone and a neurotransmitter.
____15. ‑Prednisone is used to prevent organ rejection.
Essay
Write your answer in the space provided or on a separate sheet of paper.
- Explain how one endocrine gland is controlled another.
____________________________________________
____________________________________________
____________________________________________
____________________________________________
- Explain the control of blood sugar pancreatic hormones.
____________________________________________
____________________________________________
____________________________________________
____________________________________________
- Why is the use of injected steroids so dangerous?
____________________________________________
____________________________________________
____________________________________________
____________________________________________
- What is the purpose of a set point in the body?
____________________________________________
____________________________________________
____________________________________________
____________________________________________
- Describe how the thyroid and parathyroid glands interact.
____________________________________________
____________________________________________
____________________________________________
____________________________________________
Chapter 13
Multiple Choice
Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.
- Blood vessels that carry blood away from the heart are called ________.
- Arteries
- Arterioles
- Veins
- Capillaries
- Blood is pumped to the body during this part of the cardiac cycle ________.
- Atrial systole
- Atrial diastole
- Ventricular systole
- Ventricular diastole
- What is the name of the structure that separates the lower chambers of the heart?
- Atrial mitral valve
- Ventrical SA node
- Interatrial septum
- Interventricular septum
- What is the vessel that brings blood to the heart from the trunk and pelvic region?
- Superior vena cava
- Inferior vena cava
- Superior aorta
- Inferior artery
- What is another name for the left atrioventricular valve?
- Atrial valve
- Bicuspid valve
- Tricuspid valve
- Semilunar valve
- Which section of the heart receives blood from the right coronary artery?
- Right atrium
- Left atrium
- Right ventricle
- Left ventricle
- The group of pacemaker cells near the entrance of the superior vena cava form the ____________.
- Bundle of His
- Atrioventricular node
- Myocardium
- Sinoatrial node
- Which cranial nerve releases a neurotransmitter that can decrease the pulse and force of contraction?
- Abducens
- Vagus
- Hypoglossal
- Trochlear
- If heart rate decreases, what happens to blood pressure?
- nothing
- It depends on other conditions
- It increases
- It decreases
- If a patient has been infected parasites, which white blood cell would be elevated in the bloodstream?
- Eosinophil
- Basophil
- Neutrophil
- Monocyte
- Which cells are involved in the production of antibodies?
- Monocytes
- Lymphocytes
- Erythrocytes
- Platelets
- Jill is Rh negative. Her first bawas Rh negative. She is pregnant again, but the bais Rh positive. Without medical treatment, will her antibodies attack the baby’s blood?
- yes
- no
- probably not since her first child is Rh negative
- probably yes since her first child is Rh negative
- Capillary beds are fed the
- Capillaries
- Venules
- Arterioles
- Platelets
- If the innermost wall of a vessel is damaged, the ____________ begin the repair attaching to the damaged site.
- Fibrin
- Platelets
- Fibrinogen
- Thrombin
- What clotting protein, produced the liver, begins the clotting process?
- Thrombin
- Prothrombin
- Fibrin
- Fibrinogen
- What color will blood exhibit if it has a high oxygen content?
- Blue
- Colorless
- Bright red
- Purple
- The pH value measures the levels of ________.
- WBCs and RBCs
- Electrolytes
- Antigens and antibodies
- Acidity and alkalinity
- Which WBC is effective in defending the body against parasites?
- Eosinophil
- Basophil
- Neutrophil
- Monocyte
- What is the most common blood type among Americans?
- A
- B
- O
- AB
- Peripheral vascular disease (PVD) is caused ________.
- Hypertension
- Hypotension
- Angina
- Atherosclerosis
- Leukemia is usually due to bone marrow cancer, and creates a higher number of ________ than normal.
- WBCs
- Platelets
- RBCs
- Thrombocytes
- Which of the following is not a cause of thrombocytopenia?
- Vitamin K deficiency
- Bone marrow cancer
- Liver dysfunction
- Proper spleen function
- Ischemia of the myocardium causes ________.
- Myocardial infarction
- Angina
- Heart failure
- A murmur
- The term for the stoppage of blood flow is ________.
- Homeostasis
- Hemosclerosis
- Hemothrombus
- Hemostasis
- A substance that decreases the body’s ability to clot is ________.
- Aspirin
- Vitamin K
- Vitamin A
- Enzyme
- The ________ nervous system signals blood vessels to constrict.
- Parasympathetic
- Central
- Sympathetic
- Peripheral
- In terms of their location or movement, an embolus is a ________ clot, and a thrombus is a ________ clot.
- Stationary, stationary
- Floating/moving, stationary
- Floating/moving, floating/moving
- Stationary, floating/moving
- The bicuspid or mitral valve is the valve ________.
- Between the left atrium and left ventricle
- That opens from the right ventricle into the artery
- Between the right atrium and right ventricle
- That opens from the left ventricle into the artery
- Which of the following is not a white blood cell?
- Neutrophil
- Thrombocyte
- Lymphocyte
- All of the above are white blood cells
- This is the approximate number of red blood cells in one cubic millimeter of blood.
- 1 million
- 3 million
- 5 million
- 7 million
- The role of hemoglobin in the red blood cell is to ________.
- Carry oxygen
- Carry carbon dioxide
- Carry hormones
- Both a and b above
- This clotting disorder is an inherited disorder.
- Thrombosis
- Thrombocytopenia
- Hemophilia
- Embolism
- This is a condition where an artery has become abnormally widened because of a localized weakness in the arterial wall.
- An aneurysm
- Ischemia
- Gangrene
- Phlebitis
- Another name for “hardening of the arteries” is ________.
- Angina pectoris
- Myocardial infarction
- Arteriosclerosis
- Embolism
- This is a condition usually found in the legs where blood pools in the veins because the veins have become dilated and distorted.
- An aneurysm
- Phlebitis
- Varicose veins
- Gangrene
- A heartbeat that is below 60 beats per minute is called ________.
- Tachycardia
- Bradycardia
- Sinus dysrhythmia
- Fibrillation
- A person with type A blood ________.
- Has anti-A antibodies
- Has A antigens
- Has anti-B antibodies
- Both b and c above
- The blood type considered the universal donor is type ________.
- A
- B
- O
- AB
- The condition in which the patient experiences chest pain with exertion is ________.
- Angina pectoris
- Coronary artery disease
- Myocardial infarction
- Congestive heart failure
- The condition in which a reduction in the quantity of either red blood cells or hemoglobin exists is ________.
- Anemia
- Thrombocytopenia
- Leukemia
- Polycythemia
- Signs and symptoms of right-sided heart failure include all of the following except ________.
- Jugular vein distention
- Pulmonary edema
- Edema or swelling of hands and feet
- Splenomegaly
- Which of the following is a sign or symptom of left-sided heart failure?
- Jugular vein distention
- Edema or swelling of hands and feet
- Pulmonary edema
- Hepatomegaly
- Cardiac tamponade may result from ________.
- Pericarditis
- Endocarditis
- Heart failure
- Hypertension
- Congestive heart failure is now called ________.
- Pericarditis
- Endocarditis
- Heart failure
- Hypertension
- This drug commonly reduces or eliminates angina pectoris due to its ability to increase blood flow to the cardiac muscles dilating coronary blood vessels.
- Epinephrine
- Lasix
- Oxygen
- Nitroglycerin
- Abnormal heart rhythms are called ________.
- Arrhythmias
- Sinus rhythm
- Bradycardia
- Tachycardia
- ________ is a condition in which chronic low levels of oxygen (due to lung disease or living in high altitudes) cause the body to produce more than normal amounts of erythrocytes to transport more efficiently the smaller amounts of available oxygen.
- Primary polycythemia
- Primary erythrocytopenia
- Secondary polycythemia
- Secondary erythrocytopenia
- ________ is caused bone marrow cancer stimulating an over-production of erythrocytes.
- Primary polycythemia
- Primary erythrocytopenia
- Secondary polycythemia
- Secondary erythrocytopenia
- ________ is a blood condition in which there is a less than normal number of red blood cells or there is abnormal or deficient hemoglobin.
- Sickle cell anemia
- Leukemia
- Leukocytosis
- Anemia
- ________ is an inherited condition in which red blood cells and hemoglobin molecules do not form properly.
- Sickle cell anemia
- Leukemia
- Leukocytosis
- Anemia
- ________ is usually due to bone marrow cancer, and is a condition in which a higher than normal number of white blood cells are produced.
- Sickle cell anemia
- Leukemia
- Leukocytosis
- Anemia
- ________ also exhibits as a situation in which there is a higher than normal number of white blood cells. In this case, the cause is often an infection that is being fought.
- Sickle cell anemia
- Leukemia
- Leukocytosis
- Anemia
Short Answer
Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question.
- The ____________ is the tip of the heart, distal to the head.
- The bicuspid valve is also called the ____________ valve.
- Cardiac output is determined heart rate and __________________.
- The ____________ side of the heart pumps blood to the lungs.
- During a severe hemorrhage, blood vessels will ______________ causing an increase in peripheral resistance in an attempt to raise blood pressure.
- Red blood cells are called ____________.
- Type ____________ is the universal recipient of blood donations.
- The middle layer of the vessel is the tunica ____________.
- After leaving the AV node, the electrical impulse spreads to the _________________.
- In an EKG, the __________________ wave corresponds to atrial depolarization.
- ____________ is the process in which neutrophils surround and ingest invaders.
- ____________ or clotting is the prevention of bleeding.
- The smallest arteries are ____________.
- During ventricular systole, the __________________ valves are closed.
- The epicardium is also the ________________________.
- The sinoatrial node is also called the ________.
- ________ is the chemical symbol for mercury.
- ________ defend against parasites.
- A lower number of white cells than normal is ________.
- Tissue death is called ________ or necrosis.
- Extremely low blood pressure, as in shock, can affect blood profusion to vital organs and cause tissue damage and ________.
- Peripheral vascular disease is a condition caused plaque buildup called atherosclerosis in the ________ arteries.
- In a blood transfusion, if the patient receives blood of the wrong blood type, the donor’s antigens and the recipient’s antibodies ________ and cause serious harm or death.
- The medication nitroglycerin increases blood flow to cardiac muscle vasodilation of the ________ blood vessels.
- Women who smoke and use oral contraceptives are at a higher risk of formation of thrombi in the blood vessels, which can break off to become ________.
- ________ is a type of blood cancer that can cause increased WBCs.
- When an infection occurs, the body produces a(n) ________ than normal number of neutrophils, which are one type of WBC.
- The first hour of a myocardial infarction (heart attack) is critical, so emergency services should be called immediately even if the patient ________ they are having a heart attack.
- Anemia is a blood condition in which there are fewer than normal RBCs or there is an abnormality or deficiency of ________.
- Antibodies often react with the antigens that caused them to form, and the antigens stick together, or ________, in little clumps.
- A high-fat and high-salt diet, age, obesity, smoking, stress, and decreasing flexibility of the blood vessels can all contribute to ________.
- A type of clot called a(n) ________ or emboli can partially or totally block blood flow to a portion of the heart, resulting in a coronary thrombosis, which can cause a heart attack.
- ________ is a condition in which there are fewer than normal circulating platelets.
- Since type AB doesn’t contain plasma anti-A antibodies or anti-B antibodies, it can’t clump with any donated blood that contains A or B antigens. Because of this, a type AB person is labeled a(n) ________.
- Basophils are important because they secrete the chemical ________, which helps to keep blood from clotting as it courses through blood vessels.
- A(n) ________ is a result of blood leaking backward due to a faulty heart valve or a narrowed valve opening.
- ________ is a narrowing of a valve and can be caused rheumatic fever, congenital origin, or the aging process.
- A(n) ________ is a weakening and distortion of the walls of an artery and can be caused hypertension or trauma.
- ________ is often called chest pain and is caused ischemia of the myocardium, as a result of poor blood perfusion of the heart tissue.
- Coronary artery disease or CAD is an insufficient blood flow to the heart tissue. It is usually due to ________ but may be due to clot(s) in a coronary artery.
- A(n) ________ is a clot that has moved or traveled and can be caused thrombophlebitis, venous stasis, or contraceptives.
- ________ is a chronic increase in pressure and can be caused heredity, diet, or smoking.
- ________ can be caused conditions or situations that lead to a decreased blood flow to the heart tissue, and leads to ischemia or necrosis (Do not use the abbreviation).
- ________ veins are dilated and distorted blood veins that are normally found superficially in the legs but can also be found in the rectum.
- ________ may be caused decreased red blood cell (RB) production.
- ________ is an inherited bleeding disorder.
- ________ is a less than normal level of platelets, that may be due to leukemia, or bone marrow aplasia.
True/False
Write ‘T’ if the statement is true and ‘F’ if the statement is false.
____ 1. All arteries carry oxygenated blood.
____ 2. Arteries have thinner walls than veins.
____ 3. ‑It is called systole when the heart contracts.
____ 4. The vagus nerve increases heart rate.
____ 5. ‑The ventricles are contracted during the QRS interval of the EKG.
____ 6. Plasma is a yellowish fluid.
____ 7. Monocytes are erythrocytes.
____ 8. Type AB has no antigens.
____ 9. ‑The innermost layer of the blood vessel is the tunica interna.
____10. ‑During the final stage of clotting the clot becomes water soluble.
____11. ‑During severe dehydration, blood pressure rises.
____12. A floating embolus is a thrombus.
____13. ‑Decreased blood flow to tissues is called ischemia.
____14. Atherosclerosis is caused plaque.
____15. ‑Heart valves close when their tissue is depolarized.
Essay
Write your answer in the space provided or on a separate sheet of paper.
- Draw the ECG tracing and describe what P, QRS, and T indicate.
____________________________________________
____________________________________________
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- Trace the flow of blood through the heart from superior and inferior vena cave to aorta.
____________________________________________
____________________________________________
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____________________________________________
- Discuss why an O negative mother should be concerned about her second pregnancy.
____________________________________________
____________________________________________
____________________________________________
____________________________________________
- Explain the clotting process.
____________________________________________
____________________________________________
____________________________________________
____________________________________________
- Explain the factors that influence blood pressure.
____________________________________________
____________________________________________
____________________________________________
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Chapter 14
Multiple Choice
Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.
- During metabolism, your body produces the waste product ____________.
- Oxygen
- Nitrogen
- Carbon monoxide
- Carbon dioxide
- The process of gas exchange between air and blood is called
- Ventilation
- External respiration
- Internal respiration
- Respiration
- The respiratory system terminates at the
- Alveoli
- Bronchus
- Bronchioles
- Lungs
- What region contains the coarse nasal hairs?
- Pharyngeal
- Vestibular
- Olfactory
- Laryngeal
- ____________ cells are responsible for the production of mucus.
- Goblet
- Epithelial
- Cilia
- Basal
- The vocal cords are located in the ____________.
- Nasal cavity
- Larynx
- Oropharynx
- Laryngopharynx
- The trachea extends from the larynx to the ____________ vertebrae.
- 2nd cervical
- 1st thoracic
- 6th thoracic
- 4th lumbar
- Type II cells that line the alveoli are responsible for the production of
- Carina
- Surfactant
- Carbon dioxide
- Nitrogen
- The diaphragm is covered a serous membrane called the ____________.
- Visceral membrane
- Visceral pleura
- Musculo-serous membrane
- Parietal pleura
- The area of the left lung that corresponds to the right middle lobe is ____________.
- Lingula
- Hilum
- Carina
- Sternum
- Which region of the brain controls breathing?
- Hypothalamus
- Cerebrum
- Medulla oblongata
- Occipital
- All of these muscles aid ventilation except _______________ .
- Abdominal
- Pleural
- Accessory
- Respiratory
- _____________________ is the amount of gas moved during normal ventilation.
- Inspiratory reserve volume
- Vital Capacity
- Tidal Volume
- Expiratory reserve volume
- When the diaphragm contracts, lung volume ______________________.
- Decreases
- Increases
- Stays the same
- Changes depending on circumstances
- The _______________ nerve carries impulses to the diaphragm.
- Phrenic
- Vagus
- Diaphragmatic
- Thoracic
- Due to the structure of the ________, a large amount of moisture is added to the respiratory system every day.
- Nares
- Trachea
- Conchae
- Eustachian tube
- The “clean-up” cells are located in the ________ layer of alveolar membrane.
- Surfactant
- Epithelial
- Interstitial space
- Capillary endothelium
- The kidneys attempt to increase hemoglobin levels in the body the release of ________.
- Iron
- Oxygen
- Erythrocytes
- Erythropoietin
- The diaphragm receives help from the ________ muscles in the activity of breathing.
- Pleural
- Thoracic
- Accessory
- Respiratory
- Pleural effusion with pus is a(n) ________.
- Hydrothorax
- Empyema
- Emphysema
- Eczema
- A lack of lung surfactant causes ________ lungs that resist expansion.
- Floppy
- Inflamed
- Infected
- Stiff
- The majority of cases of chronic bronchitis are caused by
- Asthma
- Allergies
- Smoking
- Fungi
- Which of the following is not part of the upper respiratory tract?
- Trachea
- Larynx
- Pharynx
- Nose
- Which of the following is not part of the lower respiratory tract?
- Trachea
- Larynx
- Bronchi
- Lungs
- Which of the following is not a subdivision of the pharynx?
- Tracheopharynx
- Nasopharynx
- Oropharynx
- Laryngopharynx
- This structure is not a part of the larynx ________.
- Thyroid cartilage
- Vocal cords
- Epiglottis
- Eustachian tubes
- The first respiratory structures without cartilage as a supporting tissue are ________.
- Primary bronchi
- Secondary bronchi
- Bronchioles
- Alveolar ducts
- The movement of air into and out of the lung is called ________.
- Evacuation
- Perspiration
- Respiration
- Ventilation
- The exchange of gases between the cells and the blood is called ________.
- Evacuation
- Perspiration
- Respiration
- Ventilation
- The amount of air that can be forcibly taken in after normally inhaling is called ________.
- Tidal volume
- Residual volume
- Inspiratory reserve volume
- Expiratory reserve volume
- A collection of air or gas in the thoracic cavity, as the result of a stab wound or gunshot wound to the chest describes a condition called ________.
- Emphysema
- Bronchiectasis
- Pneumoconiosis
- Pneumothorax
- ________ is a destructive disease of the alveoli and the adjacent capillary walls resulting in chronic dyspnea, cough, and the characteristic barrel chest.
- Emphysema
- Bronchiectasis
- Pneumoconiosis
- Pneumothorax
- Which of the following is not a respiratory structure?
- Larynx
- Esophagus
- Bronchi
- Nose
- The two most important respiratory control centers are located in this part of the brain ________.
- Medulla oblongata
- Pons
- Cerebral cortex
- Cerebellum
- Chemoreceptors that help regulate breathing can be found ________.
- In the medulla oblongata
- In the carotid artery
- In the aorta
- Both b and c
- Labored or difficult breathing is referred to as ________.
- Apnea
- Dyspnea
- Eupnea
- Cheyne-Stokes respiration
- Shortness of breath is called ________.
- Dyspnea
- Eupnea
- Orthopnea
- Wheezing
- ________ is a condition in which there is air inside the thoracic cavity and outside of the lungs.
- Pleuritis
- Pleurisy
- Pneumothorax
- Hemothorax
- ________ is a condition in which there is an excessive build-up of fluid in the pleural space between the parietal and visceral pleura.
- Pneumothorax
- Pleural effusion
- Pulmonary edema
- Empyema
- ________ is pus in the pleural space.
- Hemothorax
- Pleural effusion
- Hydrothorax
- Empyema
- ________ is blood in the pleural space.
- Hemothorax
- Pleural effusion
- Hydrothorax
- Empyema
- ________ is distinguished having reversible airway narrowing and airway hyperreactivity; and is most commonly characterized as an inflammatory process.
- Asthma
- Emphysema
- Chronic bronchitis
- Bronchiectasis
- ________ is characterized anatomically as the permanent, abnormal enlargement of distal airway spaces and destruction of the alveolar walls.
- Asthma
- Emphysema
- Chronic bronchitis
- Bronchiectasis
- ________ is associated with a chronic productive cough, enlargement of mucous glands, and hypertrophy of the airway smooth muscle ________.
- Asthma
- Emphysema
- Chronic bronchitis
- Bronchiectasis
- The inability to get air out of the lungs is known as ________.
- Hyperinflation
- Bronchospasm
- COPD
- Gas trapping
- Which of the following drugs has as its basic purpose to reduce the work of breathing, increase the oxygen content of the blood, and reduce the work of the heart?
- Antivirals
- Insulin
- Oxygen
- Antibiotics
- Which drug provides rapid relief of an acute situation of airway narrowing?
- Bronchodilators
- Steroids
- Oxygen
- Antibiotics
Short Answer
Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question.
- The trachea branches into mainstem ____________.
- The bronchi branch into ____________.
- The part of the respiratory system that carries air but has no gas exchange capability is called the ____________________ zone.
- The process of gas exchange is known as ____________.
- Air filled cavities in the facial bones are known as ____________.
- Food is prevented from entering the trachea the ____________.
- The windpipe is known as the ____________.
- The site of bifurcation in the bronchi is called the ____________.
- Premature infants are often in danger due to a lack of __________________ in the lungs.
- As CO2 levels rise, pH decreases and ____________ rate increases.
- The alveoli consists of _____________ cells.
- The oropharynx is lined with _________________ epithelium.
- A young woman dives into the surf, hitting her head and causing a spinal cord injury. She is in respiratory arrest. Her injury is most likely above the ___________________ spinal cord segment.
- The motor neurons for ventilation are in the brain region known as the ______________________.
- Red blood cell numbers are controlled a hormone released the _______________.
- Oxygen is abbreviated as the chemical sign ________.
- Carbon dioxide is abbreviated as ________.
- The smallest blood vessels are known as ________.
- Producing sound is known as ________.
- Olfaction is the sense of ________.
- The vocal cords are found in the ________.
- The liquid ________ layer lines the alveoli.
- Red blood cells are known as ________.
- Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is a global term for the conditions of emphysema, and chronic ________.
- In pleural effusion, if the fluid in the pleural space has pus, it is known as ________.
- There has been recent concern about a multi drug-________ form of TB that does not respond to the usual TB drugs and that has a high mortality rate.
- The terms iron-poor blood or tired blood come from the fact that a patient with low levels of iron tires easily due to low ________ or hemoglobin levels.
- Excessive secretions and fluid, such as in pneumonia, act as barriers and reduce the ________ in the blood.
- Bloody fluid found in the pleural cavity/space is called a(n) ________.
- In susceptible individuals, ________ causes recurrent episodes of wheezing, breathlessness, chest tightness, and cough, particularly at night and in the early morning.
- The lungs reside in the thoracic cavity and are separated a region called the ________, which contains the esophagus, heart, great vessels, and trachea.
- Swallowed materials pass through the ________ to get to the stomach.
- A(n) ________ is a condition in which there is an excessive build-up of fluid in the pleural space between the parietal and the visceral pleura.
- The ________, or breastbone, is centrally located on the anterior portion of the thoracic cage and is comprised of the manubrium, body, and xiphoid process.
- During increased physical activity or in disease states in which more oxygen is required, ________ are used to help pull up your rib cage to make an even larger space in the thoracic cavity.
- ________ is a respiratory infection causing pressure, pain and often a headache.
- The nasopharynx contains lymphatic tissue of the immune system, called the ________, and passageways to the middle ear called eustachian tubes.
- The major pathology of the upper airways include ________ or allergies of the sinuses, nose, or throat.
- ________, or sore throat, causes discomfort especially when swallowing.
- ________, or an inflamed voice box, is characterized hoarseness and loss of speech.
- ________ is a condition in which the alveoli of the lungs are either partially or totally collapsed.
- ________ is a lung infection that can be caused a virus, fungus, bacterium, aspiration, or chemical inhalation.
- ________ is defined as the presence of productive cough during 3 months of the year for 2 consecutive years, provided that other causes of chronic sputum production are excluded.
True/False
Write ‘T’ if the statement is true and ‘F’ if the statement is false.
____ 1. ‑The upper respiratory tract begins at the nares and ends at the trachea.
____ 2. ‑The nasal cavity is divided into right and left halves a septum.
____ 3. ‑The pontine respiratory group is the chief respiratory center.
____ 4. ‑Respiratory mucosa is ciliated cuboidal epithelium with goblet cells.
____ 5. The oropharynx is behind the mouth.
____ 6. ‑The major type of alveolar cell is Type II, or granular pneumocytes.
____ 7. ‑The hormone erythropoietin is released in the lungs.
____ 8. ‑Inspired objects usually lodge in the left lung.
____ 9. ‑The thoracic cavity and the upper side of the diaphragm are lined with the visceral pleura.
____10. ‑The hilum is the area where the root of each lung is attached.
____11. ‑The thoracic cage consists of twelve pairs of elastic arches of bone called ribs.
____12. The cerebrum controls breathing.
____13. ‑The dome-shaped muscle that acts to ventilate is the diaphragm.
____14. ‑The portion of the sternum where CPR is performed is the xiphoid process.
____15. ‑Atelectasis is the situation in which the air sacs collapse.
Essay
Write your answer in the space provided or on a separate sheet of paper.
- List the changes in the layers of the wall of the respiratory system from conducting zone to respiratory zone.
____________________________________________
____________________________________________
____________________________________________
____________________________________________
- Why do we breathe through our noses?
____________________________________________
____________________________________________
____________________________________________
____________________________________________
- Discuss how the angle of branching of the bronchi makes a difference in which lung receives aspirations.
____________________________________________
____________________________________________
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____________________________________________
- Explain the mechanism of ventilation.
____________________________________________
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- Discuss the effect of surfactant.
____________________________________________
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Chapter 15
Multiple Choice
Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.
- In addition to storage of white blood cells the lymphatic system is also responsible for
- Producing pathogens to fight infections
- Producing fluids to supplement the cardiovascular system
- Production of some types of white blood cells
- Maturation of some types of red blood cells
- Lymph nodes can be described as
- Small encapsulated bodies
- Patches of cytokines
- Immature antibodies
- Organelles of immunity
- Lymphatic trunks from the lumbar region empty into the
- Left lymphatic duct
- Right lymphatic duct
- Sacral duct
- Thoracic duct
- Which structure will sometimes disappear in adults?
- Sinus
- Spleen
- Thymus
- Pancreas
- Unique molecules found on the outer surface of cell membranes are called
- Antigens
- Antibodies
- Interferon
- Cytokines
- Innate immunity triggers a series of mechanisms that target specific pathogens; the mechanisms are called
- Passive immunity
- Helper cells
- Activation cells
- Adaptive immunity
- The body has both physical and chemical ____________ to prevent invaders from entering.
- Cells
- Barriers
- Nodes
- Cytes
- The first leukocytes to arrive at the site of damage are the
- Neutrophils
- Basophils
- Mast cells
- Dendrite cells
- The ____________ cells release antibodies to destroy cells that carry non-self antigens.
- Mast
- B-lymphocytic
- T-lymphocytic
- Natural killer
- What is the cytokine which is produced to stimulate macrophages and cause death of cancer cells?
- Interferon
- Interleukin
- Cytokinase
- Tumor necrosis factor
- What name is given to the series of reactions responsible for activation of twenty normally inactive proteins?
- Complement cascade
- Inflammatory response
- Margination selection
- Differentiation process
- For your body to launch an effective response to invading pathogens, innate immunity must join forces with the
- Lymphatic system
- Cardiovascular system
- Adaptive immunity
- Hypothalamus
- There are two types of proliferation, one for ____________ and one for all other types of lymphocytes.
- Natural killer cells
- B-cells
- Helper T-cells
- Dendritic cells
- ____________ are essential for the reproduction of B cells and other types of cells.
- Memory B-cells
- Helper T-cells
- Cytotoxic T-cells
- Regulatory T-cells
- Once the threat of invasion is over, the ____________ are responsible for “turning-off” the response.
- Memory B-cells
- Regulatory T-cells
- Cytotoxic T-cells
- Helper B-cells
- The HIV virus targets ________ cells.
- Natural killer cells
- B-cells
- Helper T-cells
- Dendritic cells
- It is because of adaptive ________ that people normally get chicken pox only once.
- Immunity
- WBCs
- Antibodies
- Antigens
- Barriers include all of the following except ________.
- Mucous membranes
- Skin
- Sebaceous glands
- Nails
- Which stage of cancer would mean it had spread to neartissues?
- Stage four
- Stage seven
- Stage two
- Stage five
- Which of the following is not one of the immune system’s components?
- Barrier
- NSAID
- Inflammation
- Chemical
- The ________ gland is larger in children because they are exposed to many new infections.
- Thymus
- Thyroid
- Thalamus
- Tinnitus
- In rheumatoid arthritis, the immune system attacks the ________.
- Pleural membrane
- Mucous membrane
- Synovial membrane
- Myelin membrane
- The ________ in the chest is part of the lymphatic system and helps T lymphocytes mature.
- Pharyngeal tonsils
- Spleen
- Palatine tonsils
- Thymus
- The spleen is a lymph organ that filters blood and also acts as a reservoir for ________.
- Water
- Fat
- Interstitial fluid
- Blood
- Getting a flu shot to protect against the flu is an example of ________.
- Natural passive immunity
- Natural active immunity
- Artificial active immunity
- Artificial passive immunity
- The fetus receives antibodies from the mother which last several weeks after birth. This is an example of ________.
- Natural passive immunity
- Natural active immunity
- Artificial active immunity
- Artificial passive immunity
- If you have had the chicken pox once, you will not get chicken pox again. This is an example of ________.
- Natural passive immunity
- Natural active immunity
- Artificial active immunity
- Artificial passive immunity
- If you are exposed to hepatitis A and have not been vaccinated against it, you may receive antibodies from another person. This is an example of ________.
- Natural passive immunity
- Natural active immunity
- Artificial active immunity
- Artificial passive immunity
- A cytokine produced cells in response to invasion a virus is ________.
- Complement
- Interferon
- Interleukin
- Mucus
- The group of diseases that occur when antibodies develop and begin to destroy the body’s own cells is ________.
- Immunodeficiency diseases
- Autoimmune diseases
- Immunocompetent diseases
- Diseases of the reticuloendothelial system
- The activated lymphocytes must make thousands of copies of themselves in order to fight off the thousands of pathogens reproducing in the body. This reproduction of lymphocytes is called ________.
- Lymphocyte proliferation
- Lymphocyte activation
- Differentiation
- Immunization
- HIV infection and subsequently AIDS, is characterized severe decrease in immune function, particularly ________.
- Memory B-cells
- Neutrophils
- Helper T-cells
- Plasma cells
- If the body is exposed to the same pathogen in the future, memory cells allow the body to mount a much faster response to the invasion known as the ________ response.
- Primary
- Secondary
- Tertiary
- Quaternary
- What kind of cells produce antibodies?
- T cells
- B cells
- NK cells
- Neutrophils
- Which of these is an autoimmune disease?
- c and d only
- Influenza
- Rheumatoid arthritis
- Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE)
- In this stage of cancer, spread to distant tissues and organs is present ________.
- Stage I
- Stage II
- Stage III
- Stage IV
- In this stage of cancer, no spread from the origin is present ________.
- Stage I
- Stage II
- Stage III
- Stage IV
- In this stage of cancer, spread to nearlymph nodes is present ________.
- Stage I
- Stage II
- Stage III
- Stage IV
- This stage of cancer is often terminal ________.
- Stage I
- Stage II
- Stage III
- Stage IV
- The signs and symptoms of inflammation include all of the following except ________.
- Cold
- Pain
- Swelling
- Redness
- Symptoms of rheumatoid arthritis include ________.
- Joint stiffness
- Symmetrical joint damage
- Decreased range of motion
- All of the above
- Signs and symptoms of allergies can include all of the following except ________.
- Weight loss
- Wheezing
- Upper respiratory infections
- Hives
Short Answer
Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question.
- The ____________ system is the transport system for pathogens and white blood cells.
- Lymph capillaries empty into lymphatic ____________.
- The ____________ is a lymphatic organ that destroys red blood cells.
- The ____________ is the soft organ between the aortic arch and sternum.
- Any organism that invades your body and causes disease is a(n) ____________.
- ____________ immunity is your body’s inborn ability to fight infection.
- ____________ are molecules on the outer surface of cells.
- ____________, or white blood cells, defend the body.
- ____________, and mast cells, release chemicals to promote inflammation.
- Vaccination triggers ________________________ immunity.
- Ultimately the cause of death in AIDS patients is ___________________.
- Walling off an infected area is called ____________.
- Selection of lymphocytes which react to antigens is called _______________ selection.
- Redness, heat, swelling and pain are signs of ____________.
- The reproduction of activated B cells is called _____________________.
- ________ fight parasitic worms.
- ________ means to break down or destroy.
- Cancers that are diagnosed after they have already spread to other organs are much more likely to be ________.
- There are several different types of leukemia based on the ________ of WBCs and the nature of the patient’s symptoms.
- When the hypothalamus causes a rise in body temperature during an illness, it is purposely trying to destroy the invading ________.
- Symptoms of leukemia are caused decreased function of WBCs (if the cells are immature) and decreased ________ of RBCs and platelets.
- In ________ disorders, the body fails to recognize “self” and destroys its own tissue.
- The inflammatory response is the same, whether it is a mechanical injury, a wound infection, damage due to a pathogen, or ________ throat.
- A rise in body temperature is one way the immune system deliberately tries to kill a(n) ________.
- The lumbar, intestinal, and intercostal trunk all empty into the ________ duct, a large duct that runs from the abdomen up through the diaphragm and into the left subclavian vein.
- Cells have molecules on the outer surface of their membranes to distinguish whether they are friend or foe. These molecules are called ________.
- Complement ________ is a complex series of reactions that activate 20 proteins that are usually inactive in the blood unless activated a pathogen invasion.
- If an invader has an opportunity to enter the body, white blood cells, or ________, are responsible for defending the body against invaders.
- ________ are proteins produced damaged tissues and white blood cells that stimulate immune response in a variety of ways, including increasing inflammation, stimulating lymphocytes, and enhancing phagocytosis.
- ________ is characterized four cardinal signs: swelling, pain, heat, and redness.
- The destruction of self-recognizing lymphocytes is known as ________.
- ________ arthritis is an autoimmune disorder in which the immune system attacks the synovial membrane of a patient’s joints.
- Cytotoxic T cells release a cytokine called ________, which causes infected cells to develop holes in their membranes and die.
- ________ is staged and prognosis is determined the amount of metastasis, tumor characteristics, and lymph node involvement.
- ________ is a cancer of the bone marrow and blood, characterized the overproduction of white blood cells.
- Inflammation that becomes systemic and is caused allergic reactions to insect stings, nuts, or shellfish is called ________.
- ________ is the rise in body temperature as a deliberate attempt the immune system to destroy the pathogens that have invaded the body.
- ________ disorders occur when the immune system attacks some part of the body. The body fails to recognize “self” and destroys its own tissue as if it were an invader.
- ________ arthritis is an autoimmune disorder in which the immune system attacks the synovial membrane of patient’s joints.
- Systemic lupus erythematosis (SLE) is a(n) ________ disorder in which the immune system attacks a variety of structures in the body.
- Acquired immune deficiency syndrome (AIDS) is an immune ________ disorder caused infection with the human immunodeficiency virus (HIV).
- ________ are caused the overreaction of the immune system to typically harmless antigens, like mold, pollen, or animal fur.
- ________ is caused the uncontrolled proliferation of lymphocytes.
True/False
Write ‘T’ if the statement is true and ’F’ if the statement is false.
____ 1. ‑Antigen displaying cells are infected pathogens so they can display the antigens.
____ 2. ‑Fever is caused neurotransmitters released pathogens.
____ 3. ‑Innate immunity improves with experience.
____ 4. ‑Antigens are the body’s weapons against disease.
____ 5. ‑Lymph nodes contain blood sinuses, and red and white pulp.
____ 6. ‑All lymphocytes are part of adaptive immunity.
____ 7. ‑Macrophages are part of innate immunity.
____ 8. Memory B cells remember pathogens.
____ 9. ‑An increase in cell number is called proliferation.
____10. ‑The Human Immunodeficiency Virus (HIV) targets CD-2 cells.
____11. ‑Natural immunity is acquired during vaccination.
____12. Macrophages ingest invaders.
____13. ‑Autoimmune disorders are the opposite of immunodeficiency disorders.
____14. ‑A hypersensitivity reaction is also called an allergy.
____15. ‑T lymphocytes are responsible for adaptive immunity known as antibody mediated immunity.
Essay
Write your answer in the space provided or on a separate sheet of paper.
- Describe why nodes are located near lungs, digestive, and reproductive organs.
____________________________________________
____________________________________________
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- Discuss how cancer is staged.
____________________________________________
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- How does self vs. non-self recognition affect the immune system?
____________________________________________
____________________________________________
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- Compare and contrast innate vs. adaptive immunity.
____________________________________________
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- Explain why HIV causes severe immune deficiency attacking one type of cell.
____________________________________________
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Chapter 16
Multiple Choice
Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.
- The digestive tract begins at the oral cavity and ends at the ________.
- Pharynx
- Colon
- Anus
- Appendix
- Which of the following is a function of the oral cavity?
- Starch digestion
- Protein digestion
- Peristalsis
- Nutrient absorption
- An abnormally formed ____________ will interfere with the development of clear speech.
- Molar
- Frenulum
- Vermiform
- Duodenum
- The smallest of the salivary glands are the ________.
- Sublinguals
- Submandibulars
- Parotids
- Subbuccals
- The ____________ teeth are blade shaped and used for cutting food.
- Incisor
- Canine
- Bicuspid
- Molar
- The ____________ is used both the digestive and respiratory systems.
- Epipharynx
- Oropharynx
- Nasopharynx
- Larynx
- The esophagus differs from the rest of the alimentary tract in that it possesses no ________.
- Adventitia
- Muscularis
- Mucosa
- Serosa
- The stomach has four regions, the area that connects with the small intestine is called the
- Fundus
- Body
- Pylorus
- Cardiac region
- The stomach releases the hormone ____________ to aid in digestion.
- Pepsin
- HCL
- Secretin
- Gastrin
- What is the last section of the small intestine, before it empties into the large intestine, called?
- Duodenum
- Stomach
- Jejunum
- Ileum
- Which hormone is responsible for inhibiting the release of gastric juice?
- SIP
- Pepsin
- CCK
- Gastrin
- This organ has an extra layer of muscle ________.
- Stomach
- Colon
- Liver
- Spleen
- The appendix is attached at which area?
- Colon
- Anus
- Cecum
- Rectum
- Which organ is responsible for the production of bile?
- Liver
- Stomach
- Small intestine
- Large intestine
- Hepatocytes receive blood from both the hepatic artery and the _______________
- Hepatic vein
- Hepatic portal vein
- Hepatic portal artery
- Hepatic capillaries
- The ________ is the base, or floor of the mouth.
- Tongue
- Soft palate
- Labia
- Hard palate
- The structure responsible for the absorption of excess water is the ________.
- Stomach
- Large intestine
- Liver
- Spleen
- Enzymes are necessary for digestion; ________ is produced to break down fats.
- Nuclease
- Lipase
- Carbohydrase
- Maltase
- The type of hernia where the stomach protrudes through the diaphragm and into the thoracic cavity is ________.
- Hiatal
- Hepatic
- Cholecystic
- Celiac
- Pancreatitis can be caused all but which one of the following?
- Gallbladder disease
- Excessive pancreatic enzyme activation
- Lithotripsy
- Excessive alcohol consumption
- Which of these is not one of the causes of dental caries?
- Carbohydrate-rich diet
- LDL
- Poor dental hygiene
- Lack of regular dental visits
- Lactose intolerant patients cannot digest the ________ in milk.
- Protein
- Sugar
- Fat
- Cholesterol
- Hepatitis can be caused any of the following except ________.
- The common cold
- An infectious agent
- A toxin
- Shared needles
- A colostomy may be the appropriate treatment for ________.
- Hyperactive peristalsis
- Allowing healing after surgery
- Chronic constipation
- None of the above
- ________ is a form of chronic inflammatory bowel disease.
- Gastroenteritis
- Irritable bowel syndrome
- Crohn’s disease
- Peritonitis
- ________ is caused a viral and/or bacterial infection and/or inflammation of the stomach and small intestine.
- Gastroenteritis
- Peritonitis
- Irritable bowel syndrome
- Crohn’s disease
- Polyposis is a small tumor with a pedicle in the mucous membrane of the ________.
- Stomach
- Small intestine
- Duodenum
- Colon
- The punching bag-shaped structure hanging down from the soft palate is called the ________.
- Frenulum
- Papillae
- Uvula
- Palatine tonsil
- This type of tooth is responsible for crushing and grinding.
- Incisor
- Canine
- Premolar
- Molar
- This substance is the outer covering of the shell of the tooth in the crown.
- Cementum
- Enamel
- Dentin
- Pulp
- Most of the interior of the tooth is made of this substance.
- Cementum
- Enamel
- Dentin
- Gingiva
- This condition is the cracking and associated inflammation found on the lips and corners of the mouth are not caused cancer, but rather can be traced to infections, allergies, or even to nutritional deficiency.
- Periodontitis
- Dental caries
- Gingivitis
- Cheilitis
- Which of the following is not a salivary gland?
- Sublingual gland
- Submandibular gland
- Submaxillary gland
- Parotid gland
- This enzyme is produced the salivary glands and begins the chemical digestion of carbohydrates ________.
- Salivary amylase
- Salivary maltase
- Salivary sucrase
- Salivary lactase
- The order of the segments of the small intestine from the stomach to the large intestine is which of the following?
- Ileum, jejunum, duodenum
- Duodenum, ileum, jejunum
- Jejunum, duodenum, ileum
- Duodenum, jejunum, ileum
- This structure increases the surface area of the lining of the small intestine ________.
- Peptase
- Lacteals
- Villi
- Chyle
- Pancreatic juice contains enzymes that help digest ________.
- Carbohydrates
- Fats
- Proteins
- All of the above
- The order in which material passes through the large intestine is ________.
- Descending colon, transverse colon, ascending colon, cecum
- Ascending colon, cecum, transverse colon, descending colon
- Cecum, descending colon, transverse colon, ascending colon
- Cecum, ascending colon, transverse colon, descending colon
- The process of carbohydrate digestion begins in the ________.
- Mouth
- Stomach
- Small intestine
- Large intestine
- Which of the following is the end product of protein digestion?
- Fatty acids
- Glycerol
- Simple sugars
- Amino acids
- Protein digestion begins in the ________.
- Mouth
- Stomach
- Small intestine
- Large intestine
- Which of the following is the end product of fat digestion?
- Amino acids
- Glycerol
- Simple sugars
- Both a and b
- An acute or chronic inflammation of the stomach is called ________.
- Colitis
- Stomatitis
- Gastritis
- Gastric ulcer
- A ________ is an ulcer occurring in the lower portion of the esophagus, stomach, and duodenum caused the breakdown of the mucosal membrane the acid of gastric juices and pepsin.
- Duodenal ulcer
- Stomatitis
- Gastritis
- Peptic ulcer
- ________ is/are varicose veins of the rectum.
- Rectitis
- Hemorrhoids
- Colostomy
- None of the above
- A hernia or out-pouching of intestines into the inguinal region of the body is called a(n) ________
- Diaphragmatic hernia
- Umbilical hernia
- Inguinal hernia
- Hiatal hernia
- ________ is inadequate absorption of nutrients from the intestinal tract. It is caused a variety of diseases and disorders of the pancreas and gallbladder.
- Cystic fibrosis
- Malabsorption syndrome
- Pancreatitis
- Hepatitis
- ________ is an infectious or inflammatory process of the peritoneum.
- Colitis
- Hepatitis
- Pancreatitis
- Peritonitis
- ________ are small growths that contain a pedicle or foot-like attachment in the mucous membranes of the large colon.
- Diverticulitis
- Ulcerative colitis
- Polyps
- Inflammatory bowel disease
Short Answer
Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question.
- The gastrointestinal system takes in, or ____________, raw materials.
- The gastrointestinal system breaks down, or ____________, materials.
- Another name for the digestive tract is the ____________ (GI) tract.
- During swallowing, the _______________ prevents food from entering the nasal cavity.
- The action of chewing is known as ____________.
- Materials are eliminated from the digestive tract ____________.
- The small intestine has projections on the surface of its epithelial cells known as ______________ which increase surface area.
- Internally, the teeth are made of ____________.
- The ____________ is a flap of tissue that covers the airway to the lungs.
- Deciduous teeth are commonly called ____________ teeth, because they fall out.
- The rhythmic, muscular contraction of the digestive system is known as ____________.
- Partially digested food is known as ____________.
- The chief digestive enzyme in the stomach is ____________.
- The _____________________ phase of gastric activity begins when you see or smell food.
- The peritoneum has drapes of membrane known as ____________________.
- The digestive tract begins in the mouth and ends at the ________.
- Inflammation of the appendix is called ________.
- ________ is the muscle action that mixes chyme with digestive juices.
- The condition of stones in the gallbladder is ________.
- The esophagus does not have a mucus barrier to protect it. Chronic acid ________ causes inflammation and then ulceration, and if left untreated, can progress to esophageal cancer.
- A gallstone can lodge in the bile ________, causing extreme pain that may radiate to the right shoulder (an example of referred pain).
- Excessive consumption of alcohol can cause ________.
- Periodontal disease is the major cause of tooth loss in ________.
- When fluids in the small intestine are rushed through the large intestine before the water is adequately re-absorbed, ________ is the result.
- Heartburn occurs when the lower esophageal sphincter doesn’t close properly, allowing gastric juices back into the ________.
- Stomach ulcers are likely due to defective gastric mucosa or a weak pyloric ________.
- Stones can form from substances in the bile while it is stored in the gallbladder. This condition is called ________.
- ________, also known as dental cavities, is the gradual decay of teeth that can result in inflamed tissue.
- The tongue pushes the food into a ball-like mass called a(n) ________ so it can be passed on to the pharynx.
- A large ________ salivary gland is found slightly inferior and anterior to each ear. These are the ones that swell up and make you look like a chipmunk when you get the mumps.
- The first set of teeth are called ________ (baby) teeth, and they fall out in time.
- ________ is an acute or chronic inflammation of the stomach due to infection, spicy foods, excess acid production, stress, alcohol, aspirin consumption, or heavy smoking.
- The nasopharynx is blocked the soft palate, and a flap of tissue called the ________, a part of the larynx, covers the airway to the lungs as the trachea rises during swallowing.
- Dental ________ (cavities) are a result of microorganisms attacking tooth enamel.
- ________ disease is the major cause of tooth loss in the adult population.
- ________ is the term for a loss of appetite.
- ________ is the inflammation of the gallbladder.
- ________ is the formation of stones or calculi in the gallbladder or common bile duct.
- ________ is a chronic inflammatory disease of the liver, leading to irreversible scarring and destruction of active liver tissue.
- ________ disease is a form of chronic inflammatory bowel disease affecting the ileum and/or colon.
- ________ reflux disease is the erosion of the esophageal lining due to acid reflux, often due to a weakened lower esophageal sphincter.
- ________ is the inflammation of the gums that may lead to tooth loss.
- ________ is the discharge of purulent material from dental tissue.
True/False
Write ‘T’ if the statement is true and ‘F’ if the statement is false.
____ 1. ‑The oral cavity is lined with stratified squamous epithelium.
____ 2. Canine teeth are transitional teeth.
____ 3. ‑The hardest biologically manufactured substance is enamel.
____ 4. ‑The oropharynx is lined with respiratory mucosa.
____ 5. ‑The stomach can increase its diameter because of rugae.
____ 6. ‑Directly after leaving the stomach, materials go to the jejunum.
____ 7. ‑Pepsin is one of very few enzymes which are active at very low pH.
____ 8. ‑The final door of the stomach that needs to open for chyme to travel to the small intestine is the fundus.
____ 9. ‑The descending colon is the first part of the large intestine.
____10. ‑The liver stores Vitamins A, B12, K, and C.
____11. The pH of chyme is usually 7.5-8.8.
____12. Cholelithiasis means high cholesterol.
____13. ‑Cirrhosis A, B, C, D, and E are viruses that damage the liver.
____14. Salivary amylase digests proteins.
____15. ‑Gastrin is released when chyme enters the duodenum.
Essay
Write your answer in the space provided or on a separate sheet of paper.
- List the organs of the alimentary canal in order from mouth to anus.
____________________________________________
____________________________________________
____________________________________________
____________________________________________
- Explain the hormonal control of digestion.
____________________________________________
____________________________________________
____________________________________________
____________________________________________
- Define and describe GERD.
____________________________________________
____________________________________________
____________________________________________
____________________________________________
- Discuss the function of each of the parts of the alimentary canal.
____________________________________________
____________________________________________
____________________________________________
____________________________________________
- Describe the anatomy of the peritoneum. How is peritoneum different from other serous membranes?
____________________________________________
____________________________________________
____________________________________________
____________________________________________
Chapter 17
Multiple Choice
Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.
- Without functioning kidneys, fluid and ion ___________ would kill you in a matter of days.
- Imbalance
- Equilibrium
- Reactions
- Impurities
- The kidneys are covered a layer of connective tissue called the ________.
- Renal pelvis
- Renal sinus
- Renal capsule
- Renal hilum
- What are the vessels that lead to the glomeruli?
- Arcuate arteries
- Afferent arterioles
- Efferent arterioles
- Renal arterioles
- Blood leaves the kidney through the ________.
- Efferent arterioles
- Hepatic vein
- Renal nephron
- Renal vein
- Glomerular filtrate is chemically most similar to ________.
- Urine
- Plasma
- Lymph
- Cytoplasm
- The first section of the nephron loop glomerular filtrate encounters is the ________.
- Ascending loop
- Distal tubule
- Descending loop
- Proximal tubule
- What is the most common cause of prolonged vasoconstriction in the kidney?
- Increased blood pressure
- Decreased blood pressure
- Antidiuretic hormone
- Diabetes mellitus
- What are the three processes necessary for the formation of urine?
- Intake, concentration, and output
- Chemical, muscular, and neural action
- Filtration, reabsorption, and secretion
- Arterioles, nephrons, and venules
- If blood pressure drops below normal range, what should happen to glomerular filtration rate, to compensate?
- It should decrease
- It should increase
- It should stay the same
- It depends on the situation
- ____________ is the mechanism used to protect the glomerulus from minor changes in blood pressure.
- Filtration
- Saturation
- Autoregulation
- Selection
- Anything that will affect reabsorption and secretion in the kidney will affect urine ________.
- Chemistry
- Flow
- Accumulation
- Filtration
- Hormones that regulate blood pressure also affect
- Number of nephrons
- Permeability of glomerular capsule
- Reabsorption and secretion
- Ureters and urethra
- Which steroid is secreted the adrenal cortex to increase reabsorption of sodium ions?
- Antidiuretic hormone
- Aldosterone
- Adrenalin
- Angiotensin
- New research has shown that urination is actually controlled the ________.
- Kidney
- Bladder
- Pons
- Ureters
- Urinary tract infections are often caused ____________ bacteria in the urinary tract.
- Symbiotic
- Fecal
- Abdominal
- Intestinal
- Bowman’s capsule, the renal membrane that surrounds the glomerulus, is also called the ________.
- Renal corpuscle
- Glomerular capsule
- Renal tubule
- Glomerular filtrate
- Substances are moved through a filter differences in ________ across the filter.
- Pressure
- Openings
- Tubules
- Vessels
- Which part of the renal tubular system reabsorbs or secretes the most substances?
- Distal Tubule
- Collecting duct
- Proximal Tubule
- Descending loop
- Substances that are reabsorbed or secreted in the ascending loop include ________.
- Sodium
- Potassium
- Chloride
- All of the above
- The patient with diabetes insipidus will have copious amounts of ________ urine.
- Toxic
- Concentrated
- Cloudy
- Dilute
- One of the most important risk factors for kidney disease is ________.
- Hypertension
- ACE inhibitors
- Hypotension
- Vasodilation
- Kidney stones can be caused any of the following except ________.
- Kidney infection
- Calcium
- Uric acid
- Potassium
- The only cure for end-stage renal disease is ________.
- Peritoneal dialysis
- Lithotripsy
- Blood transfusion
- Kidney transplant
- Ischemia of the kidneys (as well as any other organ) is tissue injury from too little ________ to the tissues.
- Hormones
- Oxygen
- Glucose
- Water
- Which of the following is not a function of the urinary system?
- Removing waste products from the blood
- Maintaining the proper electrolyte balance in the blood
- Maintaining the proper pH level of the blood
- All of the above are functions of the urinary system
- Which of the following statements is untrue of the kidneys?
- The right kidney is slightly higher than the left kidney.
- The kidneys are outside the peritoneal cavity.
- The kidneys are surrounded a layer of fat.
- The kidneys are affected blood pressure.
- The outermost layer of the kidney is called the ________.
- Renal pelvis
- Renal medulla
- Renal cortex
- Calyx
- The innermost layer of the kidney is called the ________.
- Renal pelvis
- Renal medulla
- Renal cortex
- Calyx
- Which of the following parts of the kidney is actually an expansion of the upper end of the ureter?
- Renal pelvis
- Renal medulla
- Renal cortex
- Calyx
- Which of the following is considered the first segment of the renal tubules?
- Glomerulus
- Proximal convoluted tubule
- Distal convoluted tubule
- Collecting tubule
- Which of the following structures drains into the collecting ducts?
- Glomerulus
- Proximal convoluted tubule
- Distal convoluted tubule
- Loop of Henle
- Even though this structure is part of the circulatory system, it is included in the discussion of the urinary system ________.
- Glomerulus
- Proximal convoluted tubule
- Renal pelvis
- Loop of Henle
- The juxtaglomerular apparatus of the kidneys release a hormone ________.
- Called antidiuretic hormone
- That dilates blood vessels
- That causes vasoconstriction
- That increases the absorption of chloride from the filtrate
- The process which most of the material in the nephron moves back into the blood is called ________.
- Filtration
- Reabsorption
- Secretion
- Micturition
- This hormone would tend to decrease the amount of urine produced.
- Antidiuretic hormone
- Aldosterone
- Atrial natriuretic hormone
- Both a and b
- This hormone would tend to increase the amount of urine produced ________.
- Antidiuretic hormone
- Aldosterone
- Atrial natriuretic hormone
- Both a and b
- The tube that carries urine out of the kidney is called the ________.
- Urethra
- Collecting tube
- Ureter
- Bladder
- The tube that carries the urine out of the body is called the ________.
- Urethra
- Collecting tube
- Trigone
- Ureter
- The process which urine is passed out of the body is called ________.
- Urination
- Voiding
- Mastication
- Both a & b
- Severe pain, hematuria, fever, chills, nausea, and urinary urgency are symptoms of ________.
- Kidney stones
- Polycystic kidney disease
- Ischemic nephropathy
- Diabetic nephropathy
- Enlarged cystic kidneys, hypertension, UTI, dilute urine, liver cysts, pain, hematuria, and aneurysm are symptoms of ________.
- Kidney stones
- Polycystic kidney disease
- Ischemic nephropathy
- Diabetic nephropathy
- This condition is caused chronic hyperglycemia ________:
- Kidney stones
- Polycystic kidney disease
- Ischemic nephropathy
- Diabetic nephropathy
- Copious, dilute urine is a symptom of ________.
- Uremia
- Renal failure
- Diabetes insipidus
- Urinary tract infection
- Painful urination, urinary frequency, nighttime urination, and foul smelling, cloudy urine are symptoms of ________.
- Uremia
- Renal failure
- Diabetes insipidus
- Urinary tract infection
- Frequent urination without pain or infection is a symptom of ________.
- An overactive bladder
- Hemolytic uremic syndrome
- Urinary tract infection
- Uremia
- High blood pressure is a common disease that can affect the kidneys. One way of treating high blood pressure is to decrease blood volume decreasing body water. This can be accomplished using what kind of drug?
- Blood thinners
- ACE stimulators
- Diuretics
- Dopamine
- Urine leaves the kidneys through the ________.
- Urethra
- Ureters
- Bladder
- None of the above
- Urine leaves the bladder through the ________.
- Urethra
- Ureters
- Kidneys
- None of the above
Short Answer
Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question.
- The ____________ carries urine from each kidney to the urinary bladder.
- The space inside the kidney is called the renal ____________.
- The collecting ducts empty into _________________.
- Blood enters the renal corpuscle via the ____________.
- There are no __________________ veins in the kidney.
- The ________________are striped areas of the renal medulla.
- All of the ___________________ in glomerular filtrate is typically reabsorbed and won’t be in urine.
- Long term use of non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs causes ____________ nephropathy.
- ____________ is an endocrine disorder characterized too little anti-diuretic hormone or the insensitivity of the kidney to ADH.
- The ____________ is the functional unit of the kidney.
- The renin-angiotensin-aldosterone ___________ system is a series of chemical reactions that regulate blood pressure.
- ____________ means to crush stones.
- The ascending nephron loop is permeable only to _________________.
- Sympathetic output causes _________________ glomerular filtration.
- PKD stands for ____________ disease.
- ________ moves fluid and chemicals into the nephron.
- ________ is the movement of molecules from high to low concentrations.
- ________ is the movement of water across a semipermeable membrane.
- Blood flows to the glomerulus via the ________ arteriole.
- Blood flows from the glomerulus into the ________ arteriole.
- In both glomerulosclerosis and glomerulonephritis, there is decreased waste product removal and the electrolyte ________ is abnormal.
- An infection with the bacteria E. Coli , usually from eating undercooked ________, can cause hemolytic uremic syndrome.
- Renal failure is also known as ________ disease, kidney disease, or kidney failure.
- When blood flow to the nephrons decreases for a period of time, the oxygen being delivered to the nephron also decreases leading to tissue injury. This injury is classified as ________.
- Nephropathy is a term for kidney disease especially when there is damage to the nephron’s ________ apparatus.
- There is no cure for PKD except kidney ________.
- It is not uncommon for trauma patients to ________ a trauma only to sustain organ damage due to ischemia.
- The glomerulus is protected from minor changes in blood pressure a mechanism called ________.
- ________ is a general term for kidney disease particularly damage to the filtering apparatus of the nephrons.
- The second factor that affects tubular reabsorption and secretion is a special type of circulation around the nephron loop, called ________ circulation.
- ________(ADH) is made the hypothalamus and secreted from the posterior pituitary when blood pressure decreases or blood ionic concentration increases.
- ________ is inflammation of the glomerulus.
- ________ is a common condition with symptoms of urinary urgency, nighttime urination, and urinary frequency with or without incontinence, but without pain or obvious urinary pathology such as hematuria or UTI.
- The indentation that gives the kidney its bean-shaped appearance is called the ________.
- Each afferent arteriole leads to a ball of capillaries called a(n) ________.
- Renal pyramids are separated narrow ________, which are extensions of the cortical tissue.
- Kidney stones are caused increased urine concentration, infection, and kidney disease. They can be made of ________ and uric acid crystals.
- ________ kidney disease is a genetic disorder that causes large cysts to form in the kidney.
- ________ nephropathy is caused decreased blood flow to the kidneys.
- Diabetic ________ is a type of kidney disease caused diabetes mellitus.
- Drug-induced ________ is a type of kidney disease caused drugs toxic to kidney tissue, especially contrast dyes and NSAIDs.
- ________ is scarring of the glomerulus.
- ________ is a blood condition that accompanies kidney disease and appears to be due to the accumulation of organic wastes in the blood stream.
- ________ uremic syndrome is a disorder caused an infection with the bacteria E. Coli , typically from undercooked meat.
- Acute renal failure is a rapid decrease in kidney function, as measured blood urea and ________ levels, that develops over minutes or days.
- ________ renal failure is defined as an ongoing, progressive kidney disease of three months or more.
- ________ is the inability to control urination.
True/False
Write ‘T’ if the statement is true and ‘F’ if the statement is false.
____ 1. Medulla means inner portion.
____ 2. ‑The functional unit of the kidney is the neuron.
____ 3. ‑More than 40 gallons of blood are filtered every 24 hours.
____ 4. ‑Filtration is controlled changing pressure.
____ 5. ‑A sphincter controls the release of urine.
____ 6. ‑The ureter is the tubing that transports urine from the bladder to the outside of the body.
____ 7. ‑Diabetes mellitus is caused production of too little insulin or insensitivity to insulin.
____ 8. ‑The visceral layer of the glomerular capsule is made of specialized cells called podocytes.
____ 9. ‑The urge to urinate is caused skeletal muscle contraction.
____10. ‑Antidiuretic hormone is secreted the kidneys.
____11. Aldosterone is a steroid.
____12. ‑Water is reabsorbed in the descending loop.
____13. ‑Caffeine promotes the working of antidiuretic hormone.
____14. ‑Atrial natriuretic peptide has the opposite affect of ADH
____15. ‑The urinary bladder serves as a reservoir for urine.
Essay
Write your answer in the space provided or on a separate sheet of paper.
- Explain how blood loss affects the kidney.
____________________________________________
____________________________________________
____________________________________________
____________________________________________
- List and explain three hormones which can regulate kidney function.
____________________________________________
____________________________________________
____________________________________________
____________________________________________
- Describe how filtration is regulated.
____________________________________________
____________________________________________
____________________________________________
____________________________________________
- Explain how diabetes mellitus affects the kidneys.
____________________________________________
____________________________________________
____________________________________________
____________________________________________
- Describe how kidney stones are caused.
____________________________________________
____________________________________________
____________________________________________
____________________________________________
Chapter 18
Multiple Choice
Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.
- Which pair of chromosomes would result in the birth of a male?
- XX
- XY
- YY
- XZ
- In the human life cycle, the fertilized egg is called a(n) ________.
- Zygote
- Gonad
- Embryo
- Fetus
- Which of the following is an example of primary genitalia in a female?
- Oviducts
- Vagina
- Ovaries
- Testes
- The outermost layer of the uterus is called the ________.
- Perimetrium
- Myometrium
- Endometrium
- Exometrium
- The glands that are responsible for the production of milk are called the ________.
- Skenes glands
- Mammary glands
- Lacteal glands
- Myometrial glands
- What are the primary genitalia in a male?
- Epididymis
- Ureter
- Seminal vesicles
- Testes
- Menstruation is the term given to the actual shedding of the ________.
- Perimetrium
- Myometriun
- Endometrium
- Exometrium
- The release of a mature egg from the ovary is called ________.
- Ovulation
- Fertilization
- Menses
- Menopause
- How many chromosomes will you find in a successfully fertilized egg?
- 21 pairs
- 46 pairs
- 23 pairs
- 16 pairs
- Of the hormones necessary for menstruation, which one comes from the ovary?
- Follicle stimulating hormone
- Estrogen
- Luteinizing hormone
- Testosterone
- In utero, the fetus is nourished the ________.
- Umbilical cord
- Amniotic fluid
- Placenta
- Amnion
- Labor is divided into stages; in which stage will the baactually be delivered?
- 1st
- 2nd
- 3rd
- 4th
- Sperm mature in the ________.
- Seminal Vesicles
- Epididymis
- Testes
- Seminiferous tubles
- Prior to puberty, testosterone _______________ FSH and LH.
- Inhibits
- Releases
- Has no effect on
- Catalyzes
- The movement of semen out of the penis is known as ________.
- Erection
- Arousal
- Ejaculation
- Semen ejection
- Females have all the eggs they will ever have the age of ________.
- 4 months in utero
- 8 months
- Puberty
- 13 years
- Breast cancer occurs in the ________ glands.
- Genital
- Mammary
- Vulvar
- Endocrine
- The reproductive cells are called ________.
- Ova
- Sperm
- Gametes
- All of the above
- This coiled tube is a comma-shaped structure that lies along the top of and behind the testis ________.
- Seminiferous tubule
- Ductus deferens
- Ejaculatory duct
- Epididymis
- The gonads include ________.
- The ova in the female and sperm in the male
- The penis in the male and the vulva in the female
- The testes in the male and the ovaries in the female
- Both a and c are gonads
- After ovulation, the ruptured follicle is transformed into the hormone-secreting structure called the ________.
- Corpus luteum
- Antrum
- Graafian follicle
- Granulose cells
- Which of the following is not a function of estrogen?
- Development and maturation of the female reproductive organs
- Initiation of the first menstrual cycle
- Appearance of pubic hair and breast development
- All of the above are functions of estrogen
- The smooth muscle layer of the uterus is called the ________.
- Endometrium
- Fundus
- Cervix
- Myometrium
- The part of the uterus that lies above the point where the uterine tubes attach is called the ________.
- Body
- Cervix
- Fundus
- Myometrium
- The narrow, lower part of the uterus is called the ________.
- Body
- Cervix
- Fundus
- Myometrium
- Which of the following is not true of the vagina?
- It is part of the female external genitalia.
- It receives sperm during intercourse.
- It is the last part of the birth canal.
- All of the above are true of the vagina.
- The phase of the menstrual cycle that directly precedes ovulation is called ________.
- The secretory phase
- The proliferative phase
- Menses
- Menarche
- Which of the following is the hormone most responsible for stimulating immature ovarian follicles to start growing?
- Estrogen
- Progesterone
- Follicle-stimulating hormone
- Luteinizing hormone
- Which of the following is the hormone most responsible for ovulation?
- Estrogen
- Progesterone
- Follicle-stimulating hormone
- Luteinizing hormone
- The absence of normal menstruation is called ________.
- Dysmenorrhea
- Amenorrhea
- Dysfunctional uterine bleeding
- Endometriosis
- Failure of the testes to descend into the scrotal sac is called ________.
- Hydrocele
- Cryptorchidism
- Prostatitis
- None of the above
- An abnormal collection of fluid within the testes is called ________.
- Hydrocele
- Cryptorchidism
- Prostatitis
- None of the above
- This blood test is for prostate cancer ________.
- PAP
- SAP
- PSA
- ASP
- This type of cancer is the most common non-skin form of cancer that affects American men ________.
- Testicular cancer
- Breast cancer
- Melanoma
- Prostate cancer
- This disorder increases with age and is relatively common, with 50% of men between the ages of 40 and 70 having some degree of this disorder ________.
- Erectile dysfunction
- Incontinence
- Prostatitis
- Melanoma
- A baborn before 37 weeks gestation is considered ________.
- Full-term
- Late
- Premature
- None of the above
- One of the most important procedures to detect breast cancer at an early, more treatable stage is regular ________.
- Pap tests
- Breast self-examinations
- Testicular self-examinations
- None of the above
- Signs and symptoms of PMS include all of the following except ________.
- Constipation
- Fatigue
- Mental confusion
- Feeling of euphoria
- Signs and symptoms of breast cancer include which of the following?
- Bloody, brown or serous nipple discharge
- Noticeable lump
- Changes in breast tissue
- All of the above
- Signs and symptoms of postpartum depression include ________.
- Fatigue
- Anxiety
- Feeling of worthlessness
- All of the above
- A procedure in which the amniotic sac is punctured and fluid is withdrawn is called a(n) ________.
- Amniocentesis
- Abdominocentesis
- Thoracentesis
- None of the above
- This syndrome is a genetic disorder that can result in a broad range of malfunctions of the male reproductive system, from complete lack of external or internal male genitalia to patients with ambiguous genitalia to patients who have typical male genitalia but are sterile.
- Testosterone deficiency
- Androgen insensitivity syndrome
- BPH
- ED
Short Answer
Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question.
- In animals, females produce eggs and males produce ____________.
- ________________ stimulates ovulation.
- After ovulation, estrogen _______________ GnRH secretion.
- During the _____________ phase, the endometrium is building up.
- Reproductive organs are called ____________.
- Another name for oviducts is ____________ tubes.
- The ruptured follicle left behind in the ovary during ovulation will become the ____________ and secrete hormones to help maintain the thickened endometrium.
- The ____________ gland surrounds the urethra.
- ____________ is the most important male hormone.
- The ____________________ are posterior to the bladder in males.
- ______________ is a mixture of sperm, sugar, water and electrolytes.
- The final stage of labor is the _____________ stage.
- The developing embryo secretes the hormone _______________ telling the woman’s body that she is pregnant.
- The implantation of endometrial tissue outside of the uterus is called _______________.
- The most common cause of male urinary symptoms is _______ (Use the Abbreviation).
- Patients with ____________ have an extra copy of chromosome 21.
- The female gonads are the ________.
- The fertilized egg is known as the ________.
- The breasts are also known as ________ glands.
- A(n) ________ is an abnormal collection of fluid in the testes.
- Down Syndrome patients have a wide range of ________ abilities.
- A common blood test called prostate-specific antigen, (PSA) can help detect ________ cancer.
- Erectile dysfunction medications such as Viagra and Levitra increase the likelihood of erection increasing ________ accumulation in the erectile tissue.
- Women have some natural ________ hormone, and males have some natural estrogen hormone.
- The possibility of having a bawith Down Syndrome increases dramatically in females over ________ years of age (Use the numeral).
- Prostate cancer is the most common cancer (of non-skin cancers) affecting ________ in this country.
- When menstrual disorders lessen a woman’s quality of life, they may be diagnosed with ________.
- Treatment of erectile dysfunction depends on the ________ cause.
- Vaginitis is the inflammation of the vagina, usually caused microorganisms such as bacteria or ________.
- There is a testes-blood barrier to prevent the ________ system from destroying sperm, which the white blood cells would recognize as invaders.
- ________ is the expulsion of semen (sperm and assorted chemicals) from the urethra.
- Following birth, the bais often fed with breast milk. One of the complications is ________ which is an inflammation of the breast.
- When cells make identical copies of themselves without the involvement of another cell, the process is called ________.
- The external female genitalia are known as the ________.
- The uterine tubes, which are about 4 inches long and not attached to the ovaries, begin as a large funnel, the infundibulum, surrounded ciliated projections, the ________.
- The process of sorting the chromosomes so that each new cell gets the right number of copies of all of the genetic material is called ________.
- The ________ layer of the uterus sheds about every 28 days when a woman has her period.
- ________ is the continued proliferation, decay and bleeding of endometrial tissue in the abdominal and pelvic cavities that can cause scarring and damage to the organs.
- The ________ is the area between the vagina and the rectum.
- The ________ glands are milk production glands housed in the breasts.
- ________ is the absence of menstruation.
- ________ is painful menstruation.
- The exact cause of PMS is not determined but may be due to irregular levels of estrogen or ___________
- Signs and symptoms of ________ include hematuria, dysuria, painful intercourse, and excessive menstrual bleeding.
- ________ cancer is the most common malignancy among women and the leading cause of death between ages 40–55.
- ________ cancer may have a genetic predisposition, and current research shows a connection with the HPV and early and frequent sexual activity.
- ________ is an inflammation of the vagina caused infection, irritation, or menopause.
- ________ is a condition in which the placenta separates from the uterus.
- ________ pregnancy is also known as a tubal pregnancy.
- Benign prostatic hyperplasia or________ is the non-cancerous enlargement of the prostate and is the most common cause of lower urinary tract symptoms in men.
True/False
Write ‘T’ if the statement is true and ‘F’ if the statement is false.
____ 1. ‑Just before ovulation, estrogen levels drop.
____ 2. ‑Normally, an adult human has 23 chromosomes.
____ 3. GnRH is released the pituitary gland.
____ 4. ‑The union of genetic material is called fertilization.
____ 5. ‑The external genitalia of the female are known as the uvula.
____ 6. HCG is secreted the ovary.
____ 7. ‑The functional layer of endometrium is shed when a woman has her period.
____ 8. ‑The prepuce is a small erectile structure in women.
____ 9. The epididymis is superior to the testis.
____10. ‑LH and FSH stimulate sperm production and maturation.
____11. ‑Erection is caused muscle contraction in the penis.
____12. ‑The spermatic cord consists of the seminal vesicles and seminiferous tubules.
____13. ‑The testes are outside of the abdominopelvic cavity.
____14. ‑The female reproductive system is hospitable to sperm.
____15. ‑An egg may be fertilized more than one sperm.
Essay
Write your answer in the space provided or on a separate sheet of paper.
- Trace the path of a sperm during ejaculation.
____________________________________________
____________________________________________
____________________________________________
____________________________________________
- Discuss endometriosis.
____________________________________________
____________________________________________
____________________________________________
____________________________________________
- List and briefly explain the function of hormones controlling female reproduction.
____________________________________________
____________________________________________
____________________________________________
____________________________________________
- Explain the role of testosterone in male reproduction.
____________________________________________
____________________________________________
____________________________________________
____________________________________________
- List the phases of the female reproductive cycle and briefly define them.
____________________________________________
____________________________________________
____________________________________________
____________________________________________
Chapter 19
Multiple Choice
Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.
- Forensic science is the application of science to ________.
- Medicine
- Biology
- Crime
- History
- What part of long bones contain high levels of oxygen?
- Medulla
- Ends
- Shaft
- Marrow
- What common food reacts with pewter and was once thought to be poisonous?
- Tomatoes
- Apples
- Figs
- Bananas
- The male and female skeleton differ in what manner?
- Females have a wider pelvis
- Males have a wider pelvis
- Females have fewer rib bones
- Males have more rib bones
- A timeline containing substances someone ingests, or becomes exposed to, can be found in the ________.
- Hair
- Bones
- Teeth
- Eyes
- Fingerprints were first suggested to be an aid in solving various crimes in ________.
- 1910
- 1782
- 1604
- 1880
- DNA fingerprinting is performed in which manner?
- Blotting digits on paper
- Splitting DNA molecules
- Dusting the scene with powder
- Dusting cells for very small prints
- Patients between the ages of 76 and 84 are classified as ________.
- Elite old
- Younger old
- Older old
- Beginning old
- The hallmark sign of aging is the body’s decreased ability to ________.
- Adapt to stressors
- Maintain homeostasis
- Maintain hair color
- Maintain skin elasticity
- What is a common food that may taste metallic to the geriatric patient?
- Tomato juice
- Orange juice
- Apple juice
- Grape juice
- What are some of the potential behavior changes related to pain?
- Euphoria
- Increased mobility
- Increased energy
- Agitation and confusion
- A healthy human brain will continue to develop until the approximate age of ________.
- 50
- 60
- 25
- 35
- A decrease in the function of the ____________ can lead to accumulation of medication in the geriatric patient.
- Kidneys
- Heart
- Lungs
- Vessels
- Seeing multiple doctors at the same time can lead to ________.
- Loss of insurance
- Carcinoma
- Polypharmacy
- Increased agitation
- Carpal tunnel syndrome is a result of damage to the ____________ nerve.
- Carpal
- Lateral
- Median
- Radial
- Disease processes, along with aging, will ________ the loss of body reserves affecting recovery after surgery.
- Accelerate
- Decrease
- Slow
- Diminish
- The elderly are increasingly more difficult to medically evaluate due to the three major changes in the patients. Which of the following is not one of them?
- Worsening vision
- Decreased hearing
- Increased memory
- Possible mental abilities
- Which lifestyle choice adversely affects the cardiovascular system, as well as other systems?
- Illegal drug use
- Smoking
- Drinking alcohol
- All of the above
- The best way to protect yourself and others from spreading or getting infections is to ________.
- Wear gloves for every patient encounter
- Wash hands before and after each patient
- Take large doses of vitamin C
- Wear a lab coat over your clothes or uniform when with patients
- If a fetus does not get enough calcium in the mother’s diet, the fetus ________.
- Gets it from converting other nutrients
- Breaks down his/her own bones that had developed so far
- Does not get enough calcium and may not develop properly because of the lack
- Gets it from the mother’s bones and teeth, weakening them
- Which of these is not a common behavioral change due to pain?
- Being grumpy
- Swearing
- Having a loss of appetite
- Increased social interaction
- Smoking mothers have a tendency toward ________.
- Babies of lower birth weights
- Premature births
- A higher rate of SIDS
- All of the above
- For several hundred years it was believed that ________ were poisonous.
- Grapes
- Poppy seeds
- Tomatoes
- Watermelons
- A skull fragment found in a 400-year-old trash dump at this settlement provided evidence that skull surgery had been performed on a patient ________.
- Mexico City, Mexico
- Cairo, Egypt
- Beijing, China
- Jamestown, Virginia
- Currently, the geriatric patient group called the older old are identified as ________.
- Age 55 to 64
- Age 65 to 75
- Age 76 to 84
- Age 85 and older
- ________ can reveal the race of an individual.
- Hair
- Eyes
- Digestive organs
- Clothing
- Bone density usually reaches its greatest peak around age ________.
- 35
- 45
- 55
- 65
- Interest in fingerprints has been around for a long period of time. Their uniqueness was discovered in the ________.
- 1200s
- 1500s
- 1600s
- 1800s
- A technique called video skull–face superimposition was used to identify ________.
- Josef Mengele
- Tutankhamen, “King Tut”
- Both a and b
- None of the above
- An older patient may lose up to ________ neurons a day.
- 100
- 1,000
- 10,000
- 100,000
- Proof that the ancient Egyptians were stricken with ________ was discovered examining their skeletons.
- Tuberculosis
- Anthrax
- Cancer
- Parkinson’s disease
- Often, geriatric patients are undermedicated for ________.
- Pain
- Hypertension
- Diabetes
- Osteoporosis
- One common occupational condition related to repetitive motion, such as typing on a keyboard, playing a piano, or hammering, is known as ________.
- Lock jaw
- Carpal tunnel syndrome
- Incontinence
- Osteoporosis
- DNA fingerprinting techniques have been used to identify ________.
- Victims of the World Trade Center
- Thomas Jefferson’s children
- Josef Mengele
- All of the above
- As an individual ages, he or she may lose which of the following?
- Muscle mass
- Neurons
- Bone density
- All of the above
- The number of taste buds decreases about ________ percent as the body ages.
- 20
- 50
- 30
- 40
- Which of the following is a barrier to proper nutrition?
- Tooth loss
- Difficulty swallowing
- Decreased saliva
- All of the above
- Which of the following can be a trigger to make a cell cancerous?
- Genes
- Radiation
- Sunlight exposure
- All of the above
- Between the ages of 20 and 80, we lose about ________ percent of our renal function.
- 25
- 50
- 40
- 30
- The aging process affects the integumentary system in all of the following ways except ______.
- Increased skin elasticity
- Increased skin delicacy
- Multiple skin lesions
- Increases in skin cancer
- Aging can affect the rates of drug ________.
- Absorption
- Metabolism
- Excretion
- All of the above
- Approximately ________ percent of all lung cancers can be traced to smoking.
- 60
- 70
- 80
- 90
- Which of the following vitamins is needed for proper night vision and helps to resist infections?
- Vitamin A
- Vitamin B
- Vitamin C
- Vitamin D
- Which of the following vitamins is needed to promote strong bones and teeth?
- Vitamin A
- Vitamin B
- Vitamin C
- Vitamin D
- Which of the following vitamins is needed to promote healthy muscular growth?
- Vitamin A
- Vitamin B
- Vitamin C
- Vitamin D
- Which of the following vitamins is needed to aid in absorption of iron?
- Vitamin A
- Vitamin B
- Vitamin C
- Vitamin D
- Which of the following vitamins is needed for proper blood clotting?
- Vitamin K
- Vitamin C
- Vitamin E
- Vitamin D
- Which of the following vitamins is needed to promote muscle growth, and may reduce the risk of Parkinson’s disease?
- Vitamin K
- Vitamin C
- Vitamin E
- Vitamin D
Short Answer
Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question.
- Tuberculosis is detectable in the lungs, brain, kidneys, and the ends of long ____________.
- The female pelvis, in general, has a pubic angle of ____________ degrees or greater (Use the numeral).
- Since hair grows relatively slowly, it can contain a(n) ____________ of substances that an individual ingested or was exposed to.
- Forensic scientists can use the molecule found in the nucleus of our cells, ____________, to identify individuals.
- The use of multiple medications the elderly is known as ____________.
- Integumentary problems can be reduced not ____________ and limiting exposure to the ____________.
- There is a(n) ____________% decrease in the function of most body systems each year, beginning around the age of thirty (Use the numeral).
- In the absence of disease, the brain continues to mature up to the age of ____________ (Use the numeral).
- Repetitive motion can lead to a condition called ____________.
- Approximately 80% of all lung cancers can be traced to ____________.
- ____________ is the most deadly form of skin cancer.
- Vitamin ____________ is needed for proper blood clotting.
- The human papilloma virus causes genital ____________.
- The metal ____________ has been detected in the bones of medieval skeletons and can be traced to eating from pewter plates.
- Whether skeletal remains are of a man or a woman can be determined examining the ____________.
- The hallmark sign of aging is the decreasing ability to maintain ________.
- A drug taken a patient with impaired renal function, such as an elderly person, may not be metabolized correctly the kidneys. This may cause a(n) ________ of the drug.
- Carpal tunnel syndrome is a common occupational condition that is related to ________ movements.
- Analgesics are stronger and last ________ in the elderly patients.
- The lung’s initial response to an inhaled irritant is to ________ or restrict the airway and minimize the inhalation of more irritant, even though this makes breathing difficult.
- Aging affects the rates of a drug’s absorption, its distribution through the body, the metabolism of the medication, and the ________ of the drug from the body.
- Many triggers can make a cell cancerous, such as exposure to sunlight, radiation, and ________.
- Cancer treatment often involves ________ as much of the cancer as possible, and then following up with radiation and/or chemotherapy to kill any cancer or cancer cells remaining in the body.
- ________ is the treatment of cancer with chemicals that kill rapidly dividing cells.
- ________ cause(s) cauliflower-like growths on the penis and vagina.
- ________, the administration of many drugs at the same time, is a major concern for the elderly.
- Many types of cancer can be prevented or managed with a healthy diet and ________.
- The congenital condition of ________ can be prevented a dietary supplement of a member of the vitamin B complex, folic acid.
- Fingerprints are actual ________ that form a pattern on the anterior surface of the hands and also on the plantar surface of the feet.
- The ________ pelvis is more funnel shaped and is heavier and stronger, with a pubic angle of 90 degrees or less.
- Bone scouring is the destruction of the smooth bone surface as a result of colonization the tuberculosis ________.
- During the aging process, there is a decrease in the total body water for both males and females. The clinical significance of this is that older patients have a tendency to ________ more rapidly.
- The senses of taste and smell ________ as a natural process of aging.
- Within the cardiovascular system, the aging process causes such changes as ________ of heart valves, which decreases their efficiency.
- Within the cardiovascular system, we also see a lessening in the ________ of blood vessels, which leads to increased blood pressures.
- There is an increase of ________, which is the loss of bladder control, in the elderly population.
- ________ is the administration of many drugs at the same time.
- Smoking affects the heart reducing the availability of ________ to the heart muscle.
- Smoking with alcohol consumption leads to a(n) ________ in stomach and mouth cancers.
- ________ steroids are used to increase strength and endurance rapidly and to build muscle mass.
- Smoking mothers tend to have babies of ________ birth weights, a tendency toward premature births, and a higher rate of sudden infant death syndrome (SIDS).
- The sexually transmitted disease ________ has symptoms of fluid-filled vesicles on the penis and blisters in and around the vagina.
- The sexually transmitted disease ________ has symptoms of purulent discharge from the urethra, dysuria, and urinary frequency in males; and purulent vaginal discharge, abnormal menstrual bleeding, and possible sterility in females.
- The sexually transmitted disease ________ can be asymptomatic.
- The sexually transmitted disease ________ is a systemic disease that can lead to lesions, lymph node enlargement, nervous system degradation, and chancre sores.
- This sexually transmitted disease ________ creates cauliflower-like growths on the penis and vagina.
True/False
Write ‘T’ if the statement is true and ‘F’ if the statement is false.
____ 1. ‑Forensic science is the application of science to law.
____ 2. ‑The infamous Nazi Mengele has never been found.
____ 3. ‑Forensic DNA evidence is the only way to identify the sex of the victim.
____ 4. ‑The race of the individual can be determined examining their hair.
____ 5. ‑In children is it nearly impossible to tell the sex of a skeleton.
____ 6. ‑The most common cause of respiratory illness is genetic disorders.
____ 7. ‑Identical twins will have the same fingerprints.
____ 8. ‑Forensic science has conclusively proved that Thomas Jefferson did not father children with his slave, Sally Hemmings.
____ 9. ‑From ages 20 to 70 we see a loss of lean body mass due to up to 30% loss in the number of muscle cells, atrophy of muscle cells, and a general decrease in muscle strength.
____10. ‑As we age, our gustatory senses become stronger to compensate for hearing and vision loss.
____11. ‑Often geriatric patients are under-medicated for pain.
____12. ‑A diet rich in sodium and vitamins helps to maintain good bone growth and development.
____13. It is important to stay well-hydrated.
____14. ‑Due to its sterile nature, urine can be used to clean a wound.
____15. ‑Spina bifida can be prevented adequate ascorbic acid ingestion during pregnancy.
Essay
Write your answer in the space provided or on a separate sheet of paper.
- Discuss how forensic scientists solve mysteries.
____________________________________________
____________________________________________
____________________________________________
____________________________________________
- Discuss how vitamin deficiencies affect health.
____________________________________________
____________________________________________
____________________________________________
____________________________________________
- Explain how DNA is used to solve crimes or identify remains.
____________________________________________
____________________________________________
____________________________________________
____________________________________________
- List five symptoms of sexually transmitted diseases.
____________________________________________
____________________________________________
____________________________________________
____________________________________________
- List five behavioral choices to improve health.
____________________________________________
____________________________________________
____________________________________________
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