Description

Anatomy and Physiology for Health Professions 2^nd Edition Colbert Ankney Lee Test Bank

ISBN-13: 978-0135060773

ISBN-10: 013506077X

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Test Bank

Chapter 1

Multiple Choice

Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question ________.

Gross Anatomy is also known as
Microscopic Anatomy
Pathologic Anatomy
Macroscopic Anatomy
Diagnostic Anatomy
An example of Gross Anatomy would be ________.
Viewing an x-ray
Using a microscope
Performing a complete cellular blood count
Determining the etiology of a disease
The study of Physiology deals with ________.
Disease
Genetics
Structures
Functions
The potential outcome of a disease is the ________.
Etiology
Diagnosis
Prognosis
Treatment
The study of disease is known as ________.
Neurology
Pathophysiology
Microbiology
Cytology
The three basic parts of a medical term include ________.
Prefix, word root, suffix
Suffix, base, meaning
Prefix, stem, ending
Base, word root, stem
What system is known as the mathematical language of Anatomy and Physiology?
Abbreviation system
Metric system
English system
Customary system
Which of the following is not a vital sign?
Heart Rate
Temperature
Pain
Respiratory rate
When the physician has documented several signs and symptoms, he will be able to make a(n) ________.
Prognosis
Etiology
Cytology
Diagnosis
A recording of the electrical activity of a skeletal muscle is a(n) ________.
electrocardiogram
electromyogram
mamogram
mammogram
The adjustments that maintain a stable environment within the body are known as ________.
Homeostasis
Metabolism
Syndrome
Pathology
Taking an MRI of the knee is considered gross anatomy because it is ________.
Difficult
Visually unpleasant
Has 144 steps
Is large scale
The body uses feedback loops to maintain homeostasis. The response that opposes an action is known as a(n) ________.
Depressing feedback loop
Negative feedback loop
Positive feedback loop
Affirmative feedback loop
Positive feedback is necessary in which of the following situations?
Blood pressure
Coughing
Bleeding
Childbirth
Vital signs include all of the following except ________.
Coloring
Heart rate
Respirations
Temperature
RBC is the abbreviation for ________.
Really bad cut
Red and blue circulation
Red blood cells
Ruptured blood clot
The indicators that are essential for human life include all of the following except ________.
Coloring
Heart rate
Respirations
Temperature
Which is not a definition for disease?
Not at ease
A condition in which the body fails to function normally
Anything that is a normal structure or function
Anything that upsets normal structure or function
The term tachycardia means ________.
Fast heart rate
Slow heart rate
Rhythmic heart rate
Study of the heart rate
Which is not a symptom of metabolic syndrome?
High triglycerides
Low HDL level
High blood pressure
Vomiting and diarrhea
A sign that could be an indication of diabetes is breath that smells like ________.
Fruity flavored chewing gum
Clay or starchy paste
Sweat
Maple
The prefix hyper means ________.
Small
Above normal
Below normal
Within
The suffix oma means ________.
Cutting into
Enlargement of
Surgically forming an opening
Tumor
The suffix algia means ________.
Inflammation
Cell
Pertaining to
Pain
The abbreviation for a stroke is ________ and the letters stand for ________.
CPR, cardiopulmonary resuscitation
CAD, coronary artery disease
CVA, cerebrovascular accident
CVA, cardiovascular accident
Most fevers are the body’s way of ________.
Killing all pathogens
Breaking up the cells of the pathogens
Making an inhospitable environment for pathogens to survive
Preventing pathogens from reproducing
Sweating at night may indicate ________.
Tuberculosis
Hodgkin’s disease
Riboflavin deficiency
Skin cancer
According to the rules of medical terminology, hepatitis is defined as ________.
Liver failure
Inflammation of the liver
Cirrhosis
Blood clotting
The abbreviation used for twice a day is ________.
TAD
TID
p.r.n
BID
Volumes expressed as ounces, pints, quarts, gallons, pecks, bushels, or cubic feet are examples of the ________.
Metric system
English system
Scientific notation
International system
The diagnostic procedure is begun first determining the ________.
Prognosis
Syndrome
Chief complaint
Laboratory tests
________ is the branch of medicine that studies the characteristics, causes, and effects of disease.
Anatomy
Physiology
Pathology
Ornithology
The term osteoma can be defined as ________.
Cutting of the skin
Tumor of the bone
Tumor of the eye
Cutting into the eye
The normal heart rate for an adult is ________ beats per minute.
10–30
70–120
90–170
60–100
The ________ is the prediction of the outcome of a disease.
Prognosis
Diagnosis
Acute determination
Syndrome
Disease-producing microorganisms that invade the body are known as ________.
Neogenic
Aerobic
Cytophrenic
Pathogenic
A condition in which the body fails to function normally is ________.
Disease
Physiology
Nosocomial
Epidemiology
The cause of a disease is called its ________.
Disease
Pathology
Nosocomial
Etiology
A specific group of signs and symptoms that are related to a specific disease is known which of the following names?
Diagnosis
Chief complaint
Syndrome
Relapse
A patient with Syndrome X can exhibit which of the following common conditions?
High blood sugar levels, low blood pressure, high blood level of HDL
High blood sugar levels, high blood pressure, high triglycerides
Low blood sugar levels, low blood pressure, high triglycerides
Low blood sugar levels, high blood pressure, low blood level of HDL
A patient who has metabolic syndrome is at an increased risk for all of the following except ________.
Diabetes
Heart attack
Horner’s Syndrome
Stroke
________ is the physiological process that monitors and maintains a stable internal environment or equilibrium.
Homeostasis
Negative feedback loop
Positive feedback loop
Metabolism
________ is a mechanism in our body that continually senses the internal and external environment and the body makes adjustments to maintain homeostasis.
Homeostasis
Negative feedback loop
Positive feedback loop
Metabolism
________ is known as a “vicious cycle.” In most cases, this is harmful if the vicious cycle cannot be broken; sometimes it is necessary for a process to run to completion.
Homeostasis
Negative feedback loop
Positive feedback loop
Metabolism
Which of the following are examples of a sign?
Temperature
Pulse
Pain
a and b
All of the following are symptoms except ________.
Pain
Respiratory rate
Dizziness
Itchiness

Short Answer

Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question.

____________ or macro anatomy represents the study of the structures visible to the unaided or naked eye.
The study of cellular structure is called ____________.
____________ is the study of structure.
____________ is the study of how structures work.
The study of disease is called pathology or ____________.
The word root in pericarditis is ____________.
A record of the breast is a(n) ____________.
____________ are the combining forms for nose.
The process of recording the electrical activity of the heart is a(an) ____________ (Do not use abbreviation).
____________ means “fear of.”
Forming a surgical opening in the colon is called ____________.
One who studies nerves is a(n) ____________.
A group of signs and symptoms is known as a(n) ____________.
If blood sugar falls, the body uses negative feedback to ____________ blood sugar.
The ideal normal value of a variable is known as the _______________.
Breath that smells fruity may be an indication of ________ mellitus.
Spoon-shaped finger nail beds may indicate a(n) ________ deficiency in the body.
If a patient has had a “nose job” you would say in medical terms that they had a(n) ________, which means surgical repair of the nose.
The combining form for ________ is gastro and adding the suffix itis (which means inflammation) makes the medical term gastritis.
Changes in objective measurable values such as temperature (________) and subjective patient perceptions (symptoms) can indicate disease is present.
The suffix tomy means ________ into.
The prefix ________ indicates “above normal.”
The cycle of ever-increasing uterine contractions due to an ever-increasing release of oxytocin is an example of ________.
The word ________ is constructed using the definition “one who studies cells.”
The area of biology that focuses on the function and vital processes of the various structures making up the human body is ________.
The ________ is the prediction of the outcome of a disease.
Syndrome X is essentially a syndrome that is created as a result of poor diet and lack of ________.
Another name for Syndrome X is the ___________ syndrome.
The artery found near the elbow is called the _________ artery.
The average ________ body temperature in centigrade is thirty seven degrees.
The body temperature is controlled the _______________.
The abbreviation for immediately is ________.
The abbreviation for nothing mouth is _____________
The abbreviation for the technique to be performed on a pulseless and non-breathing patient is ______.
ACLS stands for __________
The study of tissue samples is known as ________.

True/False

Write ‘T’ if the statement is true and ‘F’ if the statement is false.

____ 1. Anatomy in Greek means to cut apart.

____ 2. ‑Anatomy focuses on the function and vital processes of the human body.

____ 3. Macro means small.

____ 4. ‑A bacterial infection is the prognosis for a Staph infection.

____ 5. ‑Negative feedback is bad for the body because it increases a change away from normal.

____ 6. Tachycardia means a slow heart rate.

____ 7. Glyc/o is the combining form for sugar.

____ 8. Leuk/o is the combining form for cell.

____ 9. Hyp/o means above normal.

____10. ‑An appendectomy means the surgical removal of the appendix.

____11. Stat means right away or immediately.

____12. A telescope views small objects.

____13. ‑Cutting into a vein is called phlebotomy.

____14. ‑Disease is a condition in which the body fails to function normally.

____15. Pain is a vital sign.

Essay

Write your answer in the space provided or on a separate sheet of paper.

Discuss how using abbreviations can either help or hinder communication among health care professionals.

____________________________________________

Discuss how behaviors and environmental factors can contribute to disease.

____________________________________________

Define homeostasis. How is a control center important in maintaining homeostasis?

____________________________________________

What are “vital signs” and why are they called “vital?”

____________________________________________

Discuss positive and negative feedback loops.

____________________________________________

Chapter 2

Multiple Choice

Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.

Knowing the exact body region of a sign or symptom can help a health care worker determine the
Proper diagnosis
Patient’s size
Extent of injury
Proper medication
A body in the prone position is
Face up
On left side
On right side
Face down
A plane is an imaginary line dividing the body into
Squares
Sections
Organs
Tissues
Directional terms are used as ____________ within the body.
Vertical points
Horizontal points
Lateral points
Reference points
The midsagittal plane divides the body into which parts?
Superior and inferior
Internal and external
Right and left
Anterior and posterior
If –emia means ”blood” then this term means high blood glucose.
hyperglycemia
hypercholesterolemia
hyperlipidemia
hyperbacteremia
What directional term would you use to indicate the ankle if the knee is your point of reference?
External
Distal
Internal
Proximal
A young girl falls while riding her bicycle. Initially she seems fine, but later she is complaining of severe tibial pain. Where is her pain?
Her foot
Her lower leg
Her knee
Her thigh
The heart and lungs are located in the ____________ cavity.
Posterior
Abdominal
Pelvic
Thoracic
Dorsal cavities contain which organs?
Diaphragm
Brain and spinal cord
Stomach
Pancreas
The hypochondrial region is located beneath the __________?
Ribs
Heart
Stomach
Liver
A woman involved in a high speed car accident initially seems fine, but soon develops difficulty breathing. You suspect she is bleeding into one of her body cavities. Given her symptoms, which one?
Cranial
Spinal
Thoracic
Abdominal
The space within the mouth is known as the ____________ cavity
Nasal
Orbital
Cranial
Oral
The belly button is located in which region?
Epigastric
Umbilical
Iliac
Hypogastric
Pain in the ____________ quadrant can be a sign of appendicitis.
RUQ
LUQ
RLQ
LLQ
Which test gives the greatest detail of tissue structures?
MRI
EKG
Blood test
X-ray
Cyanosis is a condition that is usually a result of low levels of ________ within the body.
Blood
Oxygen
Saline
Calcium
The cervical spine contains how many vertebrae?
12
7
5
3
By placing your fingers at the T5 vertebra, you can locate which organ?
Spleen
Kidney
Lung
Brain
The type of scan that provides a series of cross-sectional slices of the body is ________.
MRI
Ultrasound
CT scan
Sonography
Blood is most commonly drawn from ________.
Deep veins
Central veins
Superficial veins
Deep arteries
Jugular venous distention is visible in the ________ area.
Neck
Chest
Brain
Lungs
The Fowlers’ position facilitates ________.
Sleeping
All treatments
Dizziness
Breathing
An injury to the abdominopelvic cavity could include injury to ________.
The brain
The heart
Spleen
The sternum
A patient with peripheral cyanosis needs ___.
Oxygen
White blood cells
Insulin
Potassium
The danger of a hernia is ________.
Internal bleeding
Blood flow is restricted to the portion of the organ protruding
When an umbilical hernia becomes an inguinal hernia
When the muscle protrudes through an organ
The supine position ________.
Describes the body lying face upward
Is also called the anatomical position
Describes the body lying face downward
Both a and b
Because humans stand and move upright, the term dorsal can be used in place of the term ________.
Inferior
Posterior
Anterior
Distal
A ________ section would divide the eyes from the back of the head.
Sagittal
Frontal
Transverse
Midsagittal
________ devices use a narrowly focused X-ray beam that circles rapidly around the body.
Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)
X-ray
Ultrasound
Computed tomography (CT) scanning
The prone position ________.
Describes the body lying face upward
Is also called the anatomical position
Describes the body lying face downward
Both b and c
The ________ contains the heart, lungs, and large blood vessels.
Thoracic cavity
Abdominopelvic cavity
Cranial cavity
Spinal cavity
The skin is ________ to the bones.
Superficial
Medial
Inferior
Deep
The opposite of superficial is ________.
Deep
Inferior
Posterior
Medial
A section that would divide the body into mirror images would be ________.
A frontal section
A cross section
A midsagittal section
A transverse section
The liver can be found ________.
In the right upper quadrant (RUQ)
In the epigastric region
In the hypogastric region
Both a and b
The ankle is a ________ structure.
Central
Peripheral
Thoracic
Superior
If you like to sleep on your stomach, you prefer sleeping in the ________ position.
Supine
Prone
Orthoptic
Abdominal
The ________ vertebrae are located in the neck.
Sacral
Thoracic
Cervical
Cranial
The lungs are ________ to the heart.
Medial
Lateral
Superficial
Infraorbital
A plane dividing a body into upper and lower portions is a ________ plane.
Sagittal
Coronal
Midsagittal
Transverse
Trendelenburg position may be contraindicated in patients with ________.
Cerebral injury
Hypertension
Skin disease
None of the above
Cyanosis causes what coloration of the skin?
Red
Blue
Black
White
Cyanosis is usually the result of low levels of ________ in the blood.
Carbon dioxide
Nitrogen
Oxygen
Carbon monoxide
Which of the following is much more serious than the other conditions?
Acrocyanosis
Central cyanosis
Peripheral cyanosis
None of the above
The most common type of radiologic diagnostic modality is the ________.
X-ray
CT scan
MRI
Ultrasound
The thoracic and abdominopelvic cavities are separated the ________.
Ribs
Spinal cord
Diaphragm
Sternum
The large, dome-shaped muscle called the diaphragm is used for ________.
Circulation
Digestion
Reproduction
Breathing
A patient is complaining of pain and the doctor suspects appendicitis. In which quadrant is the pain located?
RUQ
RLQ
LUQ
LLQ
Your patient complains of pain in the area of the liver. In which quadrant is the pain located?
LUQ
LLQ
RUQ
RLQ
The doctor has ordered a study to look at the action of heart valves. Which procedure has he ordered?
X-ray
CT Scan
MRI
Ultrasound
A patient is scheduled to undergo a test and has stated that she has had surgery for a valve replacement. Which procedure could be contraindicated in this situation?
X-ray
CT Scan
MRI
Ultrasound

Short Answer

Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question.

The ____________ position is lying with the head lower than the feet.
The ____________ position is with the bed or examination table elevated 45-60 degrees.
The transverse (horizontal) plane divides the body into superior and ____________ areas.
____________ refers to body parts located away from the midline.
The frontal or____________ plane divides the body into anterior and posterior sections.
Posterior or ____________ means towards the back of the body.
____________ refers to body parts close to a point of reference on the body.
____________ means on the outside.
The word meaning at or towards the body surface is ____________.
The opposite of dorsal is anterior or ____________.
The nose is ____________ to the eyes and ____________ to the mouth.
If your hands and feet are swollen with fluid, you are said to have ____________ or pedal edema.
Death of tissue is called ____________.
The anterior surface of the elbow is called ____________.
Antiperspirant sprays are used in the ____________ region.
The ________ position is laying face upward.
The wrist is ________ to the hand and ________ to the elbow.
When the head is lower than the heart, gravity increases the blood flow and therefore increases the cerebral or ________ pressure.
Left and right always refers to the ________ left and right.
Digital oxygen sensors would be placed on a(n) __________.
Patients are more prone to aspirate vomitus into their lungs in the Trendelenburg position and therefore should not ________ within two to four hours of being placed in that position.
The ______________region of the arm is usually where blood pressures are taken.
Pain in the general stomach area can indicate a variety of problems, including an ulcer, heart attack, appendicitis, ________ , or liver problems.
One of the problems with an X-ray film is that it is a two ________ view of a specific area.
A(n) ________ is a tear in the muscle wall that can allow a structure (usually an organ) to protrude through it.
The ________ regions are located on either side of the epigastric region and contain the lower ribs.
The ________ position is sitting in bed with the head of the bed elevated 45 to 60 degrees.
Placing patients with secretions in the bases of their lungs in the ________ position helps drain those segments of the lungs.
________ imagers use magnetic energy to produce cross sectional images of body structures.
A patient is placed in a supine position and instructed to raise his or her right leg while the practitioner places a hand on the patient’s right thigh and gives a slight opposing downward force. This procedure is known as the ________ test.
________ is a condition of bluish colored skin that is usually the result of low levels of oxygen in the blood.
The ________ region is where the thigh meets the trunk and is also called the groin region.
The Psoas test is used to test for _______________.
Death of the tissue is termed ____________.
Heart failure can cause the back-up of fluid into the venous system thus causing the neck or ________ veins to become engorged with extra blood.
A hernia of the “belly button” would be termed an _____________ hernia.
The opposite of distal is ___________________.
The opposite of deep is ______________.
Cyanosis found in the hands and feet would be called peripheral or __________
A(n) ________ is a two dimensional view of a specific area.
A(n) ________ scan creates a three dimensional view of structures in the body.
A patient is in the Intensive Care Unit, has just had brain surgery and is suffering from an increased intracranial pressure. The ________ position is contraindicated in this situation.

True/False

Write ‘T’ if the statement is true and ‘F’ if the statement is false.

____ 1. ‑The anatomical position is a human being standing erect facing forward with feet parallel and arms hanging at the side with palms facing backward.

____ 2. ‑The Fowler’s position is the best position for patients having trouble breathing.

____ 3. ‑The prone position is best for the pelvic exam.

____ 4. Cranial means superior.

____ 5. Medial means to the side.

____ 6. ‑Computed tomography (CT) scanning uses a narrowly focused x-ray beam that circles rapidly around the body.

____ 7. ‑A CT scan can show the true depth of a quarter-sized tumor shown on regular x-ray.

____ 8. Peripheral refers to the torso and head.

____ 9. The opposite of superficial is lateral.

____10. The cranial cavity houses the brain.

____11. ‑An orbital injury can cause damage to sight.

____12. ‑The pubic area is used for cardiopulmonary resuscitation.

____13. Digital means fingers and toes.

____14. Cervical means relating to the knee.

____15. Brachial means lower leg.

Essay

Write your answer in the space provided or on a separate sheet of paper.

List two organs or structures found in each of the RUQ, LUQ, RLQ, and LLQ.

____________________________________________

List and explain the major body planes and sections.

____________________________________________

If a patient complains of pain, what questions should you ask?

____________________________________________

Give the common name for the following body regions: femoral, gluteal, lumbar, antebrachial and cervical.

____________________________________________

Give the opposite of: caudal, distal, external, superficial, and posterior.

____________________________________________

Chapter 3

Multiple Choice

Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.

The smallest unit that retains the chemical properties of a particular type of matter is a(n) ________.
Atom
Molecule
Element
Ion
Atoms or molecules which carry a charge are called ________.
Elements
Protons
Neutrons
Ions
In a person with diabetes, blood may often become acidic. What blood pH might you expect in a person with untreated diabetes?
7.4
10.5
6.0
13.2
Which of the following is a characteristic of an covalent bond?
Electrons are shared
Electrons are donated
The molecule is always polar
Protons are involved in the bond
The molecule paraffin has the formula C₂₀H₄₄. What does that tell you about the molecule?
It is a protein
It is hydrophobic
It is a nucleic acid
It is polar
In a solution, the ______________ is dissolved in the _________________.
molecule, element
solute, solvent
solvent, solute
element, molecule
Glycogen is a polysaccharide made of long chains of glucose. Glucose is a ________.
Polysaccharide
Disaccharide
Monosaccharide
Saccharin
This type of lipid molecule is important in the structure and function of cell membranes ________.
Wax
Phospholipid
Triglyceride
Estrogen
The building blocks of proteins are ________.
Nucleic acids
Amino acids
Oleic acids
Lewis acids
The chief type of reaction used during catabolism is ________.
Dehydration synthesis
Hydrolysis
Hydration
Hydrogen bonding
What do anabolic steroids do when taken as medication?
Destroy tissue
Fight infection
Build up tissue
Increase fertility
These molecules speed up the rate of biological reactions ________.
Proteins
Enzymes
Antibodies
ATP
During this series of reactions, your cells use glucose to make energy ________.
Metabolism
Enzyme catalyzed
Cellular respiration
Blood clotting
This high energy molecule is made and spent cells during metabolism ________.
ATP
ADP
AMP
A&P
Which of the following has the highest energy?
ATP
ADP
AMP
A&P
A dietary source for iodine is ________:
celery
sea food
beef
pork
A symptom of fluorine deficiency is ________:
acne
hair loss
dental cavities
low blood pressure
A lack of the ability of the body to carry oxygen may be due to a deficiency in ________:
iron
copper
zinc
gold
The molecule that is stored in the liver to be used for extra energy is ________:
glucose
glycogen
hemoglobin
lipids
Glucose is used the cells during a series of chemical reactions called ________:
krebs cycle
cellular ventilation
cellular perfusion
cellular respiration

Short Answer

Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question.

Two or more elements joined together is a compound or __________________.
The nucleus of an atom contains protons and _______________.
The _____________ scale is used to measure the strength of acids and bases.
A molecule that will mix with water is called ___________________.
A molecule with the molecular formula CH₂O is a(n) ________________.
____________________ are lipid molecules arranged in rings.
____________________ molecules may be used for energy storage, movement and protection against infection.
_________________ are the types of molecules involved in cell control and genetics.
All the chemical reactions in a cell are collectively referred to as _________________.
Enzymes can only take particular substrates through particular reactions, because enzymes are ___________________.
Cellular respiration requires both glucose and ________________.
_____________________ molecules have nitrogen in their backbone.
The fluid in your body is mainly _________________.
To digest food your body needs special molecules called ___________ that help break down large molecules.
______________ molecules have hydrophilic heads and hydrophobic tails.

True/False

Write ‘T’ if the statement is true and ‘F’ if the statement is false.

____ 1. Ions are hydrophobic.

____ 2. ‑Physiologically important ions are called trace elements.

____ 3. ‑Water has hydrogen bonds, which give it its unique properties.

____ 4. Lead is a biological molecule.

____ 5. Covalent bonds are polar.

____ 6. A solution with pH 8 is basic.

____ 7. Water can store more heat than air.

____ 8. Disaccharides are a type of lipid.

____ 9. All steroids are unhealthy.

____10. ‑Many carbohydrates are energy storage molecules.

____11. Proteins have peptide bonds.

____12. ‑Dehydration synthesis can happen easily at room temperature.

____13. Enzymes can be inhibited.

____14. ‑During cellular respiration, no ATP is made.

____15. ‑Chemistry is not important in anatomy and physiology.

Essay

Write your answer in the space provided or on a separate sheet of paper.

Distinguish between the major types of chemical bonds.

____________________________________________

Explain the function of enzymes.

____________________________________________

Explain the molecular differences between carbohydrates, lipids and proteins.

____________________________________________

Explain the structure of an atom.

____________________________________________

Explain metabolism.

____________________________________________

Chapter 4

Multiple Choice

Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.

The organelles that provide 95% of the body’s energy are ________.
Ribosomes
Mitochondria
Adenosines
Cytoplasma
Sperm cells are able to move in a swimming motion the use of ____________.
Centrioles
Cilia
Vesicles
Flagella
The molecule made mitochondria that provides the power to the cell is ________.
ATP
RNA
ADP
DNA
A series of channels found within the cytoplasm that is formed from folded membrane is ________.
Golgi apparatus
Facilitated diffusion
Endoplasmic reticulum
Cell membrane
Given that they have lots of golgi, salivary glands and pancreatic cells must perform which function(s)?
Lipid synthesis
DNA synthesis
Protein synthesis
Secretion and storage
The process of cleaning debris and waste from the cell is carried out ________.
Lysosomes
Lipids
Filaments
Ribosomes
The cell receives its shape from a network of microtubules and filaments known as the ________.
Cytoskeleton
Endoskeleton
Exoskeleton
Microskeleton
____________ are short, hair-like projections found on the outer surface of specific cells.
Capsids
Vesicles
Cilia
Flagella
The most important molecules for making the cell membrane selectively permeable are ________.
Proteins
Phospholipids
Cholesterol
ATP
When all the carrier molecules are full and no more molecules can be carried across the cell membrane, this is called ________.
Inhibition
Saturation
Competition
Specificity
Which microorganism has the ability to become part of the cell and is then much harder to destroy?
Virus
Fungi
Bacteria
Protozoa
Which molecule is least likely to be able to pass through a cell membrane without help?
H₂O
CH₄
C₆H₁₂O₆
C₇H₁₆
The process of allowing substances into and out of the cell is controlled the ________.
Nucleus
Cell membrane
Lysosomes
Golgi apparatus
The cells that make up the human body are called ________.
Mitotic cells
Meiotic cells
Eukaryotic cells
Chromosomal cells
What section of the cell cycle is actually devoted to cell division?
Interphase
Cellphase
Duophase
Mitosis phase
When the body performs cellular respiration, food is changed into a form of energy called ________.
RNA
ADP
DNA
ATP
An organism that produces disease is known as a(n) ________.
Organelle
Pathogen
Magnetosome
Centriole
Which microorganism is spread the release of spores?
Bacteria
Virus
Fungi
Protozoa
Which disease is caused a protozoan?
Candidiasis
Shingles
Malaria
Strep
The substance commonly transported during facilitated diffusion is ________.
Glucose
Sodium
Cytoplasm
Potassium
All of the following can reproduce asexually except ________.
Animal cells
Plant cells
Viruses
Bacteria
The mitosis phase has four divisions; when do the chromosomes split?
Anaphase
Metaphase
Prophase
Telephase
Cancer is diagnosed a variety of techniques, including all of these except ________.
Biopsy
Blood test
Chemotherapy
Imaging
Micro-organisms that live within or on us normally are collectively called ________.
Cancer cells
Normal flora
Epithelial cells
White blood cells
Bacterial cells have no nucleus or organelles and reproduce easily through a process known as ________.
Chromatin
Eukaryosis
Interphase
Binary fission
Which of these is not a function of the cell membrane?
Protein synthesis
Regulation of what moves into and out of the cell
Identifying the cell
Holding the cell together
These are called the “power plants” of the cell ________.
Ribosome
Mitochondria
Golgi apparatus
Lysosomes
Which of these is not part of a cell?
The plasma membrane
The interstitial fluid
The cytoplasm
The nucleus
All of the above are part of the cell
These organelles contain powerful enzymes that take care of cleaning up intracellular debris and other waste ________.
Ribosomes
Smooth endoplasmic reticulum
Mitochondria
Lysosomes
This is the site of protein synthesis in the cell ________.
Mitochondria
Lysosomes
Ribosomes
Golgi apparatus
This organelle consists of tiny flattened sacs that help process and package chemicals in the cell ________.
Ribosome
Mitochondria
Golgi apparatus
Lysosome
These are extremely fine hair-like structures on the surface of the cell ________.
Cilia
Microvilli
Flagella
Rough endoplasmic reticulum
This is the movement of water from an area of lower solute concentration to an area of higher concentration through a membrane ________.
Osmosis
Diffusion
Filtration
Dialysis
During this phase of mitosis, the chromosomes split and the spindles pull them apart ________.
Telophase
Anaphase
Metaphase
Interphase
During this phase of mitosis, chromosomes are aligned in the center of the cell ________.
Telophase
Anaphase
Metaphase
Prophase
This general process is utilized the cells for the intake of liquid and food when the substance is too large to diffuse across the cell membrane ________.
Pinocytosis
Endocytosis
Exocytosis
Phagocytosis
________ are unique because they cannot grow, “eat,” or reproduce themselves.
Bacteria
Fungi
Protozoans
Viruses
Ninety percent of the cell’s life is spent in which phase during the cell cycle ________.
Interphase
Prophase
Anaphase
Metaphase
Telophase
An example of fungal infection is ________.
Athlete’s foot
Thrush
Common cold
a and b only
Malaria is caused which of the following types of infections?
Viral
Bacterial
Protozoan
Fungal
Signs and symptoms of bacterial infection may include ________.
High fever
Rapid pulse
Pain and swelling
All of the above

Short Answer

Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question.

Parts of the cell are called ____________.
Because all substances cannot pass easily through it, cell membranes are known as selectively permeable or _______________________ membranes.
____________ is the process in which a substance travels from an area of higher concentration to an area of lower concentration.
The process of blocking a carrier is called ______________________.
_______________ is a process in which water will travel across a semipermeable membrane from an area of lower solute concentration to an area of higher solute concentration.
When a cell membrane actively surrounds a solid substance and forms a vesicle which moves into the cell, this is called ____________.
The ____________ is the control center of the cell.
____________ act as power plants in the cell.
____________ are whip-like tails that help cells move.
Normal ____________ are bacteria that are normal in the body.
____________ are pathogens that are surrounded capsids.
When cells make copies of themselves without the involvement of another cell, it is called ____________.
The process of sorting the chromosomes so that each new cell gets the right number of copies of all the genetic material is called ____________.
The phase in which the chromosomes become visible is ____________.
The word for non-cancerous is ____________.
________ are tiny building blocks of all matter which combine to form molecules.
________ is the process in which water travels through a selectively permeable membrane to equalize concentrations of a solute.
________ involves using pressure to force water and its solutes through a membrane.
The ________ is a series of channels in the cytoplasm.
________ are microscopic, hair-like projections on the outer surface of some cells.
A(n) ________ packages and delivers proteins.
Any time a new cell is made, it is made a process of ________.
The brief portion of the cell cycle that is devoted to actual cell division is the ________ phase.
The phase in which the chromosomes split and the spindles pull apart is ________.
Viruses cannot grow, eat, or reproduce themselves, but must enter another ________ to do its cellular activities.
Bacteria, which are prokaryotes, grow rapidly and reproduce splitting in ________.
Following the analogy in your book, consider ribosomes the manufacturing plant for building materials used for ________ and repair.
The breaking off and spreading of malignant cells is called ________.
Benign tumors typically grow slowly, and push ________ cells out of the way.
Without mitosis, your body would not be able to grow, or replace old or ________ cells.
Viruses can stay dormant in the body and become ________ once again, later in life.
Examples of fungal infections are athlete’s foot and a mouth fungus called ________ or candidiasis.
The ability of a substance to “pull” water toward an area of higher concentration of the solute is called ________.
Mitosis is the division and sorting of the genetic material, while ________ is the division of the cytoplasm.
An organism that produces disease is called a(n) ________.
Viruses have their genetic material surrounded a protective protein coat called

a(n) ________.

Bacterial infections are treated with ________, chemicals that can kill the prokaryotic bacteria without harming eukaryotic cells.
________ differs from osmosis in that pressure is applied to force water and dissolved materials across a membrane.
A spherical body made up of dense fibers called the ________ is found within the cell nucleus.
The ________ is a network of microtubules and interconnected filaments that provide shape to the cell and allow the cell and its contents to be mobile.
Fungi can spread through the release of ________.
________ are bacteria that live within or on us and are normally harmless.

True/False

Write ‘T’ if the statement is true and ‘F’ if the statement is false.

____ 1. The stomach is an organelle.

____ 2. ‑Proteins prevent ions from crossing cell membranes.

____ 3. ‑The ability of a substance to pull water towards an area of higher concentration of the solute is filtration.

____ 4. ‑Cellular respiration makes carbon dioxide as a waste product.

____ 5. ‑If water is transported across a cell, it is known as phagocytosis.

____ 6. ‑Cytoplasm is composed of water, nutrients, and electrolytes.

____ 7. Chromatin is found in the nucleus.

____ 8. All cells have cell membranes.

____ 9. ‑The centriole is a whip-like organelle used for cell movement.

____10. ‑The Golgi apparatus has powerful enzymes that can eat cellular debris.

____11. Lysis means to break down.

____12. ‑Metastasis is spreading of benign cancer cells.

____13. Some bacteria are not pathogenic.

____14. ‑The four phases of mitosis are prophase, metaphase, anaphase, and telophase.

____15. ‑Telophase occurs when the chromosomes line up in the center of the cell.

Essay

Write your answer in the space provided or on a separate sheet of paper.

Compare and contrast active and passive transport.

____________________________________________

Describe how isotonic, hypotonic, and hypertonic salt solutions affect osmotic pressure.

____________________________________________

Discuss the characteristics of carrier mediated transport.

____________________________________________

Discuss the levels of organization in the human body from smallest to largest.

____________________________________________

Discuss how cancer is mitosis run amok.

____________________________________________

Chapter 5

Multiple Choice

Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.

Cells that are arranged in several layers are called ____________ cells.
Cuboidal
Stratified
Columnar
Squamous
The lining of the urinary bladder is composed of which type of cell?
Simple squamous
Transitional
Simple cuboidal
Simple columnar
This connective tissue has cells in lacunae in a gel-like matrix ________.
Cartilage
Areolar
Regular
Reticular
Muscle tissue possesses contractility, also known as the ability to ________.
Swell
Mutate
Shorten
Strengthen
This connective tissue has cells in a mineral matrix ________.
Cartilage
Reticular
Bone
Blood
Which membrane is the largest organ of the integumentary system?
Cutaneous
Mucous
Parietal
Visceral
The colon is an organ included in which body system?
Gastrointestinal
Cardiovascular
Integumentary
Reproductive
Which of the following is considered a nonvital organ?
Heart
Gallbladder
Lung
Liver
The production of blood cells occurs within which body system?
Cardiovascular
Muscular
Endocrine
Skeletal
Which type of muscle lines the blood vessels and airways of the body?
Rough
Glia
Smooth
Striated
Your skin, after it is exposed to sunlight, will produce which vitamin?
Vitamin A
Vitamin B
Vitamin C
Vitamin D
Processing and interpreting information, motor functions and sensory functions are responsibilities of which body system?
Muscular
Nervous
Sensory
Endocrine
Balance is the responsibility of which sensory organ?
Ear
Eye
Nose
Throat
What is the first step in wound healing?
Regeneration
Inflammation
Organization
Scarring
Which of the following tissues regenerates well?
Cardiac muscle
Nervous Tissue
Smooth Muscle
Bone
An example of a synovial joint would be the ________.
Axis
Brachial
Temporal
Knee
The movement of food is a function of ________ muscles.
Involuntary
Sensory
Cardiac
Striated
Maintaining the proper acid-base balance of the blood is carried out which body system?
Skeletal
Respiratory
Musculoskeletal
Integumentary
T-Lymphocytes are specialized cells produced for which function?
Producing red blood cells
Genetic reproduction
Saliva production
Fighting infection
Mucous is ________.
The type of membrane
The material that collects in the corner of the eye
The actual substance secreted membranes
The substance secreted synovial membranes
Specialized infection-fighting WBCs are produced the ________ system.
Cardiovascular
Lymphatic
Integumentary
Endocrine
A patient who has difficulty conceiving most likely has a problem in the ________ system.
Nervous
Urinary
Reproductive
Cardiovascular
One of the functions of the endocrine system is to help you deal with stresses produced ________.
Trauma
Dizziness
Sleeplessness
Nausea
The term tachypnea means ________.
Fast breathing
Fast heart rate
Fast blood pressure rise
Fast spike in temperature
The body’s largest organ is ________.
The liver
The brain
The large intestine
The skin
The skeletal system includes all but which of the following?
Bones
Cartilage
Ligaments
All of the above are included in the skeletal system
This type of muscle tissue is found in the stomach ________.
Skeletal
Voluntary
Smooth
Cardiac
This type of muscle tissue is found in the heart ________.
Skeletal
Voluntary
Smooth
Cardiac
Which of the following is not a gland in the endocrine system?
Thyroid
Pituitary
Hypothalamus
Salivary
Which of these organs is a primary organ of the digestive system?
Liver
Pancreas
Small intestine
Both a and c
This type of tissue provides rapid communication between various parts of the body ________.
Epithelial
Connective
Muscle
Nervous
This type of tissue covers the body and lines many of the parts of the body ________.
Epithelial
Connective
Muscle
Nervous
This is the most common tissue and is found throughout the body more than any other form ________.
Epithelial
Connective
Muscle
Nervous
This type of tissue specializes in movement of the body ________.
Epithelial
Connective
Muscle
Nervous
This type of tissue can be classified the shape and arrangement of its cells ________.
Epithelial
Connective
Muscle
Nervous
The ________ system transports water, oxygen, and a variety of nutrients and other substances necessary for life to the cells, and transports waste products away from the cells.
Cardiovascular
Urinary
Digestive
Respiratory
When cells are arranged in a scale-like or flat arrangement, they are referred to as ________.
Squamous
Cuboidal
Columnar
Transitional
Which of the following epithelial membranes is the largest organ of the integumentary system?
cutaneous
parietal
visceral
mucous
Which of the epithelial membranes encases individual organs?
parietal
mucous
visceral
cutaneous
Which membrane lines the wall of the thoracic cavity?
cutaneous
parietal
mucous
visceral

Short Answer

Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question.

When similar cells act together to perform a function, they are called a(n) ____________.
Any avascular tissue with no extracellular matrix and an obvious top surface is __________________ tissue.
The ______________ tissue is a single layer of plate-like cells.
Muscle tissue that is striated is called skeletal or ____________.
A torn ligament involves damage to ________________ connective tissue.
Membranes that cover the brain and spinal cord are called ____________.
The membrane layer that wraps around individual organs is called ____________.
Nervous tissue has two types of cells _______________ and glia.
Adipose tissue is more commonly known as _______________.
Tissue healing begins with cells called ______________________ which draw the edges of the wound together.
The ____________ system delivers oxygen to the bloodstream.
The ____________ system acts as a storm drain and protects the body.
The ____________ system is the main storage for calcium.
The sensory or ____________ system provides sensory information from the external world.
The ____________ system rids the body of carbon dioxide.
In a serous membrane, the membrane layer that lines cavities is called ________.
The combining form for joints is ________.
The combining form for vein is ven/o, veni/i and ________.
The limbs are part of the ________ skeleton.
The skin and hair are parts of the ________ system.
________ are the sites of exchange between blood and tissue.
Special structures called lymph nodes act as filters to capture unwanted particles or ________.
Hormones produced the ________ system help you to deal with general stress and stress produced infection and trauma.
The ________ system helps regulate the number of red blood cells and the acid-base and electrolyte balance of blood.
The ________ layer lines the wall of the cavities in which organs reside.
A membrane associated with connective tissue is the ________ membrane.
Skeletal muscle is described as ________ because of its striped appearance.
________ are conscious (and unconscious) feelings or an awareness of conditions that occur inside and outside of the body.
The membranes associated with covering the brain and spinal cord are called ________.
The branchlike formations that receive sensory information are called ________.
The ________ layer, which also produces serous fluids, wraps around the individual organs.
The body’s first line of protection is its ________.

True/False

Write ‘T’ if the statement is true and ‘F’ if the statement is false.

____ 1. Squamous cells are column-like.

____ 2. ‑Stretchy epithelial tissue is called transitional.

____ 3. Mucus lubricates tissue.

____ 4. ‑Connective tissue is the most common tissue.

____ 5. Blood is a connective tissue.

____ 6. ‑Involuntary muscle tissue is called skeletal muscle.

____ 7. ‑Swelling is always a negative symptom which should be prevented at all costs.

____ 8. Nervous tissue regenerates well.

____ 9. ‑A mucous membrane is a double layered membrane with a potential space between the layers.

____10. The liver is part of the urinary system.

____11. ‑The cardiovascular system is one of the body’s control systems.

____12. Veins carry blood away from the heart.

____13. ‑The esophagus is in the gastrointestinal system.

____14. ‑Nitrogen waste is usually eliminated through the integumentary system.

____15. ‑Hormones are chemicals which circulate in the bloodstream.

Essay

Write your answer in the space provided or on a separate sheet of paper.

Explain the relationship between cells, tissues, organs and systems.

____________________________________________

Choose one system and list the parts of that system.

____________________________________________

Distinguish between connective and epithelial tissue.

____________________________________________

Explain the steps in wound healing.

____________________________________________

Compare and contrast cardiac, smooth, and skeletal muscle.

____________________________________________

Chapter 6

Multiple Choice

Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.

Which type of bone is cube-shaped in appearance?
Short
Long
Regular
Irregular
The ends of long bones are known as the ____________.
Medulla
Periosteum
Diaphysis
Epiphyses
A narrow ridge of bone is known as the ____________.
Crest
Head
Spine
Condyle
A ____________ is a groove or shallow depression on the surface of a bone.
Facet
Sinus
Fossa
Meatus
An ____________ is a mature bone cell.
Osteoprogenitor
Osteoblast
Osteoclast
Osteocyte
Compact bone is created over the surface of spongy bone ____________.
Osteoprogenitors
Osteoclasts
Osteons
Osteoblasts
Bone growth will continue for as long as the ____________ plate exists.
Diaphyseal
Epiphyseal
Osteon
Medullary
____________ is the type of connective tissue that helps to cushion the ends of long bones.
Spongy bone
Cartilage
Bone marrow
Synovium
This type of joint is held together connective tissue strands ________.
Gliding
Synovial
Cartilaginous
Fibrous
What type of joint is formed when an oval shaped bone fits into an elliptical cavity?
Pivot
Gliding
Hinge
Ellipsoidal
The joints of the hips and shoulders are examples of ____________ joints.
Pivot
Fibrous
Ball and socket
Saddle
This movement occurs when you turn your foot toward the other foot ________.
Eversion
Inversion
Pronation
Flexion
The primary ossification center in long bones is located in the ________.
Epiphyses
Diaphysis
Articular cartilage
Central Canal
The bone disease ____________ is a degenerative disorder, characterized thinning bones.
Osteoporosis
Osteitis
Osteomyelitis
Osteosarcomas
The last stage in bone repair is ________.
Remodeling
Bony callus formation
Soft callus formation
Hematoma formation
Which mineral is included in the composition of bone?
Iodine
Calcium
Potassium
Iron
The spinal column and bones of the middle ear are part of the ________ skeleton.
Superior
Axial
Inferior
Appendicular
Lordosis is a(n) ________ curvature of the lower back and is commonly called ________.
Left lateral, swayback
Posterior, swayback
Anterior, swayback
Anterior, hunchback
Your textbook lists eight causative agents for bone and joint disorders other than osteoporosis and arthritis. Which of these is not one of them?
Nutritional disorders
Degenerative disorders
Tumors
Osteomalacia
________ is a nutritional disorder caused a vitamin D deficiency.
Osteomalacia
Rickets
Scurvy
Both a and b
Scoliosis is an example of what classification of disorders?
Infection
Congenital
Trauma
Secondary
If the body is not in balance, regardless of the cause, spinal curvatures may be exaggerated, leading to ________.
Kyphosis
Scoliosis
Lordosis
All of the above
Which of these is not a type of arthritis?
Rheumatoid
Osteo
Septic
Cruciate
A bone fracture in your arm would be part of the ________ division of the skeleton.
Thoracic
Appendicular
Axial
Spinal
This refers to the shaft of a long bone ________.
Epiphyses
Periosteum
Diaphysis
Endosteum
This is the strong, fibrous connective tissue covering the bone ________.
Epiphyses
Periosteum
Diaphysis
Endosteum
This term refers to the ends of a long bone ________.
Epiphyses
Periosteum
Diaphysis
Endosteum
This membrane lines the spongy bone ________.
Epiphyses
Periosteum
Diaphysis
Endosteum
This is the location in the bone where hemopoiesis occurs ________.
Epiphyses
Periosteum
Diaphysis
Medullary cavity
The microscopic cylindrical-shaped unit of compact bone is called ________.
The endosteum
The cancellous
The osteon
The trabeculae
The bar and plate-like tissue of spongy bone are called ________.
Flagellite
Osteocytes
Osteon
Trabeculae
Bone-building cells are called ________.
Osteoblasts
Osteoclasts
Osteocytes
Hemopoietics
The skeleton can still grow as long as there is cartilage left in the ________.
Haversian system
Diaphysis
Epiphyseal plate
Chondrocytes
An abnormal side-to-side curve in the vertebral column is called ________.
Lordosis
Kyphosis
Scoliosis
Convexities
The number of pairs of true ribs is ________.
12
14
5
7
These joints permit the widest range of movement ________.
Hinge
Pivot
Saddle
Ball and socket
This bone condition occurs most frequently in postmenopausal women with calcium deficiencies ________.
Rickets
Osteomalacia
Osteoporosis
Paget’s disease
Ensuring that young children had a sufficient amount of vitamin D would prevent ________.
Rickets
Osteomalacia
Osteoporosis
Paget’s disease
Another name for a compound fracture is ________.
An open fracture
A closed fracture
A comminuted fracture
An impacted fracture
________ is a general term used to describe an inflammatory process of a joint or joints.
Arthritis
Osteoarthritis
Gout
Bursitis
________ is a degenerative condition that is a result of simple “wearing out” of a joint from a sports injury, trauma, repetitive motion, obesity, or just the aging process.
Rheumatoid arthritis
Osteoarthritis
Gout
Bursitis
________ is a chronic, systemic disease that is believed to be an autoimmune condition affecting the connective tissue of the body.
Gout
Bursitis
Septic arthritis
Rheumatoid arthritis
________ is the result of the infective process of a pathogen that was introduced to a joint from a penetrating wound or a blood-borne pathogen.
Rheumatoid arthritis
Gout
Septic arthritis
Arthritis
A cleft palate is an example of which of the following?
Congenital disorder
Degenerative disorder
Infection
Nutritional disorder
Osteoporosis is an example of which of the following?
Congenital disorder
Infection
Degenerative disorder
Nerve disorder
Signs and symptoms of osteoarthritis include which of the following?
Joint develops a crooked deformation
Greater range of motion
Painful swelling of affected joint
a and c only
This is a common sports injury caused twisting of the leg, or an anterior or posterior blow when the leg is planted or bearing weight ________.
Cruciate ligament tears
Gout
Osteomalacia
Osteoporosis

Short Answer

Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question.

The hollow region in the bone is the ____________ cavity.
Tarsals are examples of ____________ bones.
Vertebrae are examples of ____________ bones.
Spongy bone tissue is arranged in bars and plates called ____________.
The production of red blood cells is known as erythropoiesis or____________.
An articulating end of a bone that is rounded and enlarged is called a(n) ____________.
A hollow area is a(n) ____________.
A tube or tunnel-like passageway through bone is a canal or____________.
The larger version of a tubercle located only on the femur is the ____________.
Ossification or ____________ is the term used to describe the formation of bone in the body.
Broken bones will not knit together unless they are touching or ___________.
The clavicle and skull bones form via __________________ ossification.
The tissue making up most of your skeleton until embryonic week 8 is known as ________________.
When joints become inflamed, this is called ____________.
____________ means to move away.
The end of the bone is called the ________.
A special form of connective tissue that can withstand a fair amount of flexing, tension, and pressure is ________ or ligaments and tendons.
When joints become inflamed, it is called ________,

When two or more bones meet, we have an ________.
________ describes increasing the angle of a joint.
Cruciate ligament tears are treated with rest, immobilization, and/or ________ intervention.
Pain medication can include non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) such as naproxen and ibuprofen. These drugs reduce ________, thus reducing pain and swelling.
Because of the continual breakdown of old and creation of new bone, adults actually need more calcium in their diets than do ________.
Osteoporosis is a metabolic problem with slow, progressive decrease in bone ________.
A compound or ________ fracture is particularly nasty because deep tissue has the potential to be exposed to bacteria once the bone is set into place, increasing the chance for infection.
A patient should see the doctor for any obvious bone deformity or misalignment of a(n) ________.
Very tough, whitish bands that connect from bone to bone are called ________.
Another term for the production of red blood cells is ________.
________ is a chronic, systemic disease that is believed to be an autoimmune condition affecting the connective tissue of the body.
________ bones are fairly equal sized in width and length, similar to a cube, and are mostly found in your wrists and ankles.
________ joints are found in your knees and elbows.
If a bone is crushed to the point that it becomes fragmented or splintered, that is classified as a ________ fracture.
The ________ in women is different than in men. This fact can be used to identify the sex of a skeleton, such as in a murder case or an archeological find.
Osteoporosis research is showing that ________, especially weight bearing and impact forms, improves bone density.
________ is a condition in which the upper portion of the spine exhibits a posterior curve, producing what is commonly called a humpback or hunchback.
________ is a lateral curvature of the spine.
________ is an anterior curve of the lower back and is commonly called swayback.
A fine fracture that does not completely break or displace the bone is a(n) ________ fracture.
A(n) ________ or closed fracture is a break without a puncture to the skin.
An individual in an accident who has a bone that is severely twisted may receive a(n)________ fracture.
________ fractures are incomplete breaks, which more often occur in children because they have softer, more pliable bone than adults.
A fracture in which the bone is pushed through the skin is referred to as a(n) ________ or open fracture.
Tendonitis or tendinitis often occurs in conjunction with ________.

True/False

Write ‘T’ if the statement is true and ‘F’ if the statement is false.

____ 1. ‑Bending your knee is an example of joint extension.

____ 2. ‑The deltoid muscle moves the arm away from the body. It is a flexor.

____ 3. Supination turns the palm downward.

____ 4. ‑One hundred twenty-six bones comprise the appendicular skeleton.

____ 5. ‑The appendicular skeleton includes bones of the thorax, spinal column, hyoid bone, bones of the middle ear, and skull.

____ 6. The tarsals are the toe bones.

____ 7. There are twelve thoracic vertebrae.

____ 8. The skull has mainly synovial joints.

____ 9. ‑Once you reach puberty bone stops regenerating.

____10. ‑The heel of the foot is known as the acromion process.

____11. The patella is the kneecap.

____12. Bone is covered endosteum.

____13. ‑The lining of a freely moving joint is cartilage only.

____14. Fibrous joints are not freely moving.

____15. ‑Arthritis is mainly caused cracking your knuckles and slouching.

Essay

Write your answer in the space provided or on a separate sheet of paper.

Explain the microanatomy of compact bone.

____________________________________________

Describe how the body makes new bone.

____________________________________________

List five types of bone disorders.

____________________________________________

List three types of joint disorders.

____________________________________________

Explain the steps in bone repair.

____________________________________________

Chapter 7

Multiple Choice

Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.

Thin myofilaments are called ________.
Z bars
Myosin
Myofibril
Actin
Muscles may be named using ________.
Speed
Action
Age
Myofilament type
When the nervous system signals a muscle to contract ____________ ion channels open.
Phosphorus
Sodium
Myosin
Actin
Skeletal muscle produces body movement as well as maintains our ____________ as we sit.
Strength
Vasodilation
Vasoconstriction
Posture
The _____________________ is the prime elbow flexor.
Biceps femoris
Biceps brachii
Triceps brachii
Flexor digitorum
The _____________________ muscle is located on the front of the lower leg.
Gastrocnemium
Latissimus dorsi
Tibialis anterior
Hamstrings
Which type of muscle will not regenerate once it is severely damaged?
Smooth
Visceral
Cardiac
Skeletal
Which term is used to designate muscle pain?
Myalgia
Ataxia
Paralysis
Spasm
Which disorder affects the peripheral nervous system usually with ascending paralysis starting in the feet?
Muscular dystrophy
Guillain-Barré syndrome
Myasthenia gravis
Tetanus
Striated muscles, which appear to have stripes, are in which type of muscle?
Skeletal
Internal
Visceral
Smooth
Blood is pumped through the heart which type of muscle?
Skeletal
Smooth
Cardiac
Visceral
The stationary attachment of the muscle is called the ____________.
Point of movement
Point of insertion
Point of control
Point of origin
The only muscle that possesses both voluntary and involuntary abilities is the ________.
Heart
Lung
Diaphragm
Brain
Rotation occurs when you have movement around a(n) ________.
Axis
Vessel
Vertebrae
Ball and socket
The muscle movement that enables a joint to bend is the ________.
Flexion
Flexor
Extension
Extensor
Muscle cells are made up of ________.
Z bars
Myosin
Myofibrils
Actin
The myofilaments used during muscle contractions will return to their resting state when the ________ relax.
Sarcomeres
Myosin
Actin
Z Bars
When the nervous system signals a muscle to contract, the ________ ion channels open.
Phosphorus
Sodium
Myosin
Actin
Skeletal muscles are able to contract ________ times faster than smooth muscle.
20
40
50
60
Approximately ________ percent of the body’s weight comes from its muscles.
15
50
65
80
The part of the muscle that attaches to the bone that is stationary is called the ________.
Point of movement
Point of insertion
Point of control
Point of origin
The symptom of shin splints is ________.
Patellar displacement
Swelling in the wrist
Pain in the tibia
Bruising of the shins
Myasthenia gravis is a(n) ________ disorder.
Malignant
Genetic
Myosin
Autoimmune
The etiology of fibromyalgia is ________.
Unknown
Acute injury
Sudden, involuntary muscle spasms
Bacterial infection
Duchenne muscular dystrophy is a(n) ________ defect in muscle protein
Autoimmune
Genetic
Unknown
Acute
The bacteria clostridium tetani release a toxin that ________.
Relaxes muscles and tightens ligaments
Causes intermittent muscle spasms
Causes the patient to go into shock
Keeps muscles constantly contracted
Which of the following is not a symptom of myopathy?
Weakness
Genetics
Stiffness
Spasm
Atrophy means muscles ________.
Have increased growth
Waste away
Will be scarred
Develop excessively in childhood
The toxin used in Botox to treat wrinkles is ________.
Botulinum toxin
Clostridium tetani
Staph
Acetylcholine
A severe muscle strain can cause all of the following symptoms except ________.
Complete loss of movement
Swelling
Severe pain
Fever
The location of pain is confined to tender points in ________.
Muscular dystrophy
Tetanus
Myasthenia gravis
Fibromyalgia
Another name for a voluntary muscle is ________.
Striated muscle
Cardiac muscle
Skeletal muscle
Both a and c
This type of muscle tissue contains striations.
Voluntary muscle
Cardiac muscle
Smooth muscle
Both a and b
Another name for visceral muscle is ________.
Cardiac muscle
Voluntary muscle
Smooth muscle
Striated muscle
Strength training causes ________.
Muscle atrophy
A decrease in blood vessels to a muscle
Muscle hypertrophy
A decrease in the number of mitochondria in a muscle cell
In the bending of the elbow ________.
The triceps brachii is the synergist
The biceps brachii is the prime mover
The biceps brachii is the antagonist
The brachialis is the prime mover
The triceps brachii and the biceps brachii ________.
Are synergistic for each other
Both have their origin in the forearm
Are antagonist to each other
Both have their insertions in the shoulder
Intercalated discs are found in ________.
Striated muscle
Cardiac muscle
Smooth muscle
All of the above
Wasting away or deterioration of muscle is called ________.
Hypertrophy
Ankylosis
Atrophy
Myositis
________ is an injury that is the result of overuse, overstretching, or forcible stretching of a muscle beyond its functional capacity. It sometimes involves a tendon or ligament.
Avulsion
Sprain
Shin splints
Strain
A strong, tough strand or cord of dense connective tissue that serves as an attachment for muscle to bone is ________.
A ligament
Cartilage
Adipose tissue
A tendon
Endurance training results in ________.
Muscle atrophy
An increase in blood vessels to a muscle
Muscle hypertrophy
An increase in muscle fibers
The movement that is opposite of flexion is ________.
Abduction
Rotation
Extension
Supination
________ provides the energy to help the myosin heads form and break the crossbridges with actin.
ATP
Calcium
Potassium
Vitamin D
All of the following can be used in naming a muscle except ________.
Location of attachments
Size
Action
Shape
Color
Pectoralis major is located in or near the ________.
Elbow
Chest
Upper portion of the thigh
Front of lower leg
Symptoms of tendinosis include which of the following?
Pain
Tenderness
Stiffness
All of the above
A common running-related inflammatory injury of the extensor muscles and surrounding tissues of the lower legs is called ________.
Shin splints
Tendinitis
Muscle sprain
Myopathy
The majority of fibromyalgia patients are ________.
Men
Women
Children
Elderly
This bacteria releases a toxin that keeps muscles constantly contracted and causes tetanus.
Meningitis
E. Coli
Staphylococcus aureus
Clostridium tetani
Which of the following conditions can be the result of prolonged physical activity, excessive fluid/electrolyte loss, or menstruation?
Tetanus
Fibromyalgia syndrome
Cramps/spasms
Strains/tendinitis
Progressive fluctuating muscle weakness, often starting in the facial or eye muscles are signs and symptoms of which disease?
Mitochondrial myopathy
Fibromyalgia syndrome
Myasthenia gravis
Duchenne muscular dystrophy
Progressive descending muscle spasm, rigidity, stiffness and pain, especially in the jaw are signs and symptoms of which disease?
Tetanus
Fibromyalgia syndrome
Cramps/spasms
Strains/tendinitis

Short Answer

Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question.

The 3 types of muscle are cardiac, skeletal, and ____________.
____________ attach bone to bone.
The end of the muscle that is attached to the moving bone is the ____________.
Muscles that cause movement in the opposite direction of the prime mover when they contract are called ____________.
The muscle that controls breathing is the ____________.
A muscle that bends a joint is called a(n) ____________ muscle.
The sternocleidomastoid is attached at the sternum, mastoid process and ____________
Motor neurons release the neurotransmitter ____________.
During muscle contraction myosin heads bind to ______________.
Increased muscle growth is called ____________.
Muscles convert ____________ to glucose.
____________ means muscle pain or tenderness.
____________ is a condition of muscle wasting.
____________ is a bacterial infection that causes rigid paralysis.
____________ describes increasing the angle of a joint.
________ is the study of muscles and movement.
When blood vessels get larger in diameter, it is called ________.
When the body dies, excess calcium remains in the muscles and causes the ________ fibers to shorten and stiffen the body.
During an asthma attack, the smooth muscles in the airways of the lungs ________, causing the patient to have difficulty getting air in and out.
Tetanus is a muscle disease caused an untreated bacterial infection of a(n) ________.
The majority of fibromyalgia syndrome patients are ________.
Vasoconstriction can cause blood pressure to ________.
Vasodilation can cause the blood pressure to ________.
Some muscular diseases can cause ________, which is a condition of irregular muscle movement and lack of muscle coordination.
The main skeletal muscle that controls our breathing is the ________.
A(n) ________ is a test in which a muscle group is stimulated with an electrical impulse that causes a contraction.
When excess calcium remains in the muscles throughout the body and causes the muscle fibers to shorten (contract) and stiffen the whole body, ________ has set in.
________ are donut-shaped muscles that act as doorways to let materials in and out alternately contracting and relaxing.
A common running-related inflammatory injury of the extensor muscles and surrounding tissues of the lower legs is called ________.
________ or tendinitis is a degenerative disease leading to breakdown and scarring of tendons, that appears to be caused the failure of tendons to repair themselves after injury.
The sarcomere has the actin and myosin filaments arranged in repeating units separated from each other dark bands called Z________.
________ (also known as lock jaw) is a muscle disorder caused an untreated bacterial infection of a wound.
Muscle strains are injuries caused overstretching the ________ or the muscles themselves.
________ is a degenerative disease leading to breakdown and scarring of tendons.
Cramps or ________ are a sudden, severe involuntary muscle contraction.
________ cause pain in the tibia region.
________ is a potentially deadly disease caused food poisoning with the Clostridium botulinum bacteria.
Strains (tears) or ________ can be caused an acute injury or chronic overuse or disease.

True/False

Write ‘T’ if the statement is true and ‘F’ if the statement is false.

____ 1. Smooth muscle is found in the stomach.

____ 2. Ligaments attach muscle to bone.

____ 3. The rectus femoris is in the arm.

____ 4. ‑Abduction moves a muscle away from midline.

____ 5. ‑Extension decreases the angle between 2 bones.

____ 6. Vasoconstriction makes vessels smaller.

____ 7. ‑Cardiac muscle is only found in the heart.

____ 8. Hypertrophy is muscle wasting.

____ 9. ‑Ataxia is partial or total loss of the ability to move muscles.

____10. Sprains are tears or breaks in ligaments.

____11. ‑Guillain-Barré syndrome is a disorder of the peripheral nervous system.

____12. ‑An electromyograph records electrical activity in muscles.

____13. ‑A hernia is caused when tendons become inflamed.

____14. ‑The pectoralis major muscle is named for its action.

____15. Smooth muscle is voluntary muscle.

Essay

Write your answer in the space provided or on a separate sheet of paper.

Explain the steps underlying skeletal muscle contraction.

____________________________________________

Explain why corpses become stiff.

____________________________________________

List the rules for naming muscles

____________________________________________

Explain the structure of a sarcomere.

____________________________________________

Compare and contrast myasthenia gravis, muscular dystrophy, Guillain-Barré Syndrome and tetanus.

____________________________________________

Chapter 8

Multiple Choice

Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.

What is the layer of skin that we can see?
Subcutaneous fascia
Epidermis
Stratum basale
Dermis
Patches of melanin found on the skin form ____________.
Melanocytes
Freckles
Bilirubin
Carotene
The condition of yellow jaundice occurs when the body builds up excess
Carotene
Melanin
Bilirubin
Freckles
Collagenous and elastic fibers of the ____________ make it possible for the skin to flex with movement of the body.
Dermis
Subcutaneous
Epidermis
Fascia
____________ sweat glands become active at puberty.
Sebaceous
Apocrine
Salivary
Eccrine
The skin is attached to the muscles of the body the ____________ layer.
Epidermis
Dermis
Hypodermis
Subcutaneous
Connective tissue of the skin is developed from ____________.
Melanocytes
Fibroblasts
Collagen
Fascia
What is the degree of burn in which all three layers of skin have been destroyed and the victim feels no pain?
First
Second
Third
Fourth
The “rule of ____________” is a system devised to assess the amount of body surface affected a burn.
Injury
Nines
Many
Five
After a severe burn, a patient may require a(n) ____________, in which skin is removed from an unaffected area of his body and moved to the burned area.
Antibacterial patch
Heterograft
Donor site
Autograft
Epidermal cells are sloughed off from the ________.
Basal layer
Clear layer
Horny layer
Dermal layer
Specialized epithelial cells originating from the nail ____________ form your nails.
Root
Cells
Bed
Base
What color would you expect to see at a healthy nail bed?
Blanche
White
Pink
Tan
By the time epidermal cells reach the surface of the epidermis they are filled with ________.
Keratin
Carotene
Lunula
Granulosa
The integumentary system plays an important role in regulating the body’s ____________.
Environment
Composition
Elasticity
Temperature
Medication placed into the skin is called ________.
Intravascular
Intramuscular
Intracutaneous
Intraspinal
________ is a disease in which there is reduced blood flow to the extremities.
PVD
Jaundice
Dermatitis
RBC
Which of the following is not a fungal infection?
Tinea pedis
Tinnitus corporis
Tinea cruris
Tinea corporis
Fourth degree burns penetrate ________.
To the muscle
To the subcutaneous tissue
To the skin
To the bone
Jaundice is caused a build-up in the body of ________.
Carotene
Bilirubin
Melanin
Bile
Pubic lice are often called ________.
Bugs
Sex bugs
Nits
Crabs
Treatment for Herpes is ________.
Antivirals
Antibiotics
Steroids
Medicated cream
Diabetes is a disease that may cause reduced blood flow to the extremities. This condition is known as ________.
Keloid
Folliculitis
Peripheral vascular disease (PVD)
Dermatitis
Plantar warts are found ________.
On children’s hands and fingers
Around the mouth and nose
On the genitals
On the sole of the foot
A lesion can include all of the following except ________.
Wound
Injury
Single patch of skin
Infected follicle
A condition that has a “bulls-eye” macule/papule is ________.
Scabies
General warts
Acne
Lyme disease
Tinea capitis, tinea corporis, tinea pedis, and tinea cruris are caused ________.
Bacteria
Mites
Fungi
Ringworms
Causes of alopecia (baldness) include ______.
Chemotherapy and other medications
Aging and heredity factors
Scalp infections
All of the above
Which statement is not true of the epidermis?
It is a stratified squamous epithelium.
It is composed mostly of connective tissue.
It is the outermost layer of skin.
It contains the stratum corneum.
The stratum corneum ________.
Is composed of mostly dead cells
Is the innermost layer of the epidermis
Contains melanocytes which give the skin color
Both b and c
The skin tans in response to sunlight because of the release of ________.
Keratin
Melanin
Sebum
Collagen
________ is a chronic skin condition marked thick, flaky, red patches of various sizes, covered with white, silvery patches.
Psoriasis
Atopic dermatitis (eczema)
Herpes zoster
Seborrheic dermatitis
________ is an eruption of extremely painful vesicles that occur in a band-like pattern along the course of a spinal nerve pathway.
Scabies
Pediculosis
Herpes zoster
Acne vulgaris
The treatment of cellulitis includes ________.
Incision and drainage
Antibiotics
Antifungal medications
All of the above
Which of the following is not found in the dermis of the skin?
Connective tissue
Nerve endings
Melanocytes, which give the skin color
Sweat glands
The layer of epithelial tissue under the fingernail, actually part of the epidermis, is called ________.
The nail body
The cuticle
The lunula
The nail bed
This type of gland secretes oil for the skin and hair.
A sebaceous gland
A sudoriferous gland
An eccrine gland
An apocrine gland
Burns that are characterized blisters, severe pain, and swelling are classified as ________.
First-degree burns
Second-degree burns
Third-degree burns
Fourth-degree burns
The rule of nines is used to ________.
Determine the depth of burns
Determine the color of burns
Determine the body surface area burned
Both a and b
This skin infection is also called furuncles.
Tinea
Impetigo
Warts
Boils
This skin infection is caused a papilloma virus.
Tinea
Impetigo
Warts
Boils
Individuals with a malfunctioning adrenal gland may have what color of skin?
Blue
Red
Yellow
Bronze
Folliculitis is inflammation of the hair follicles and is usually caused what type of bacteria?
Streptococcus
Staphylococcus
Mycobacterium
E. Coli
Chicken pox is caused the ________ virus.
Herpes varicella
Herpes zoster
Herpes simplex type 1
Herpes simplex type 2
Fever blisters or cold sores are caused the ________ virus.
Herpes varicella
Herpes zoster
Herpes simplex type 1
Herpes simplex type 2
Genital herpes is caused the ________ virus.
Herpes varicella
Herpes zoster
Herpes simplex type 1
Herpes simplex type 2
Shingles is caused the ________ virus.
Herpes varicella
Herpes zoster
Herpes simplex type 1
Herpes simplex type 2
________ are normally found on children’s hands and fingers.
Plantar warts
Common warts
Genital warts
None of the above
________ are found on the sole of the foot and tend to grow inward exhibiting a smooth surface.
Plantar warts
Common warts
Genital warts
None of the above
________ are highly contagious and sexually transmitted.
Plantar warts
Common warts
Genital warts
None of the above
________ is the most common type of fungal skin infection and is highly contagious.
Tinea corporis
Tinea unguium
Tinea cruris
Tinea pedis
________ is a fungal infection of the groin and scrotal areas that mainly affects men.
Tinea corporis
Tinea unguium
Tinea cruris
Tinea pedis
________ is incorrectly called ringworm.
Tinea corporis
Tinea unguium
Tinea cruris
Tinea pedis
________ is a condition in which a fungal infection is involved with either fingernails or toenails.
Tinea corporis
Tinea unguium
Tinea cruris
Tinea pedis
Cellulitis is an inflammatory condition of the skin and subcutaneous tissue caused what bacteria?
Streptococcus
Staphylococcus
Mycobacterium
E. Coli
A burn victim comes into your local Emergency Room and you are helping to assess the extent of their burns. In your assessment, you notice that the patient has burns on their head and neck, their right arm, right leg, and the front of the torso. You determine that the patient has burns over ________ % of their body.
45
63
54
36

Short Answer

Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question.

The layer in which epidermal cells are born is known as the ____________.
The outermost surface of the skin is known as the ____________.
_________ are responsible for your skin color.
____________ glands secrete oil.
Fat cells are known as ____________.
Cells which can develop into connective tissue are called ____________.
Two factors when assessing burns are ____________ and area damaged.
A first degree burn penetrates through the _________________.
Sublingually means under the ____________.
Hair is composed of fibrous protein called ____________.
________ or bilirubin is the substance that gives skin a yellow hue.
Hair stands on end in an attempt to regulate ________________.
A(n) ____________ is a crack or groove in the skin.
This __________________ layer of the skin regenerates easily after injury.
A boil is also called a(n) ____________.
The basal layer of the epidermis is known as ________.
The front of the ________ is considered to be 18% of the skin surface area.
Hair is composed of fibrous protein called ________.
When blood vessels get larger in diameter it is known as ________.
When blood vessels get smaller in diameter it is known as ________.
A(n) ________ or hive is a small, raised, round area on the skin that sometimes itches.
Warts, or ________, are caused the papilloma virus.
Alopecia is the term for any type of ________ loss.
Lyme disease involves multiple body systems as a result of a bacterial ________ that is spread the bite of a deer tick.
Severe burns require healing at an intensity the body ________ normally achieve on its own.
Trapped sebum can stagnate and dry out, becoming darkened. This is called a(n) ________.
Ideally a wound heals from the inside, working its way toward the outside or ________.
When accessing burns, there are two factors: the ________ of the burn and the size of the area burned.
Initially the patient with third degree burns will feel no ________.
Herpes is a lifelong virus that produces skin inflammation (lesions) in the form of ________.
As bilirubin builds up in the body, ________ occurs, giving the skin a deeper yellow color.
________ is characterized the “bull’s eye” rash as a result of a bacterial infection that is spread via the bite of the deer tick.
________ is a condition in which a fungal infection is involved with either fingernails or toenails.
A mass of excessive scar tissue that has a raised and firm, irregular shape is called a(n) ________.
The hair that you see is called the shaft, and the root extends down into the dermis to the ________.
The sebaceous gland secretes ________, an oily substance that coats the follicle and works its way to the skin’s surface.
Tiny mites that burrow into the skin to lay eggs cause a condition known as ________.
________ is the body’s attempt to get as much “hot” blood exposed to a cooler surrounding environment so the heat radiates away from the body.
Turning and padding are important in the prevention of decubitus ________.
Excessive bruising could indicate skin, ________, or circulatory problems as well as physical abuse.
Folliculitis presents with formations of small ________ that surround the follicle.
Warts or ________ are caused the papilloma virus, which causes a hypertrophy of the keratin cells in the skin.
Cellulitis, if left untreated, can lead to life threatening conditions such as ________.
A first-degree burn has damaged only the ________ layer of skin, the epidermis, and is classified as a partial-thickness burn.
A fourth-degree burn goes all the way to the ________.
A second-degree burn involves the entire depth of the ________ and a portion of the dermis and can cause blistering.
A third-degree burn affects all three of the skin ________ and is classified as a full-thickness burn.
A(n) ________ is a classic example of a first-degree burn.
________ is the term for an infestation with lice that is the result of direct contact with a person infested with lice or sharing objects that may be infested.
________ is the term for any type of hair loss, and can be acute or chronic.
A(n) ________ is a pathologically altered piece of tissue that can include a wound or injury of a single infected patch of skin.
________ or hives are itchy wheals surrounded a red inflamed area.

True/False

Write ‘T’ if the statement is true and ‘F’ if the statement is false.

____ 1. ‑The stratum basale is the outermost surface of the skin.

____ 2. Carotene gives a bluish hue to the skin.

____ 3. ‑Second degree burns involve the entire depth of the epidermis and a portion of the dermis.

____ 4. ‑First degree burns affect all three of the skin layers.

____ 5. ‑Each upper limb is considered 9% of the body skin surface area.

____ 6. Keratinization softens cells.

____ 7. ‑The part of the hair that you see outside the body is the follicle.

____ 8. ‑The white, half-moon shaped area of your finger nail is called the cuticle.

____ 9. An infected blackhead is a pustule.

____10. ‑As your temperature rises during activity, your body signals blood vessels to constrict.

____11. ‑Muscles in your skin are called arrector pili.

____12. ‑The most dangerous type of skin cancer is basal cell carcinoma.

____13. A polyp is a small tumor with a stem.

____14. ‑A vesicle is a small, fluid-filled, raised spot on the surface of the skin.

____15. ‑Eczema is a disorder that results primarily from an allergic reaction.

Essay

Write your answer in the space provided or on a separate sheet of paper.

Distinguish between first, second and third degree burns.

____________________________________________

Explain the journey of an epidermal cell from birth to death.

____________________________________________

Describe how transdermal medication works.

____________________________________________

How do we assess peripheral perfusion?

____________________________________________

How is hair used in forensics?

____________________________________________

Chapter 9

Multiple Choice

Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.

The part of the nervous system which is located outside the brain and spinal cord is called the ____________ system.
Endocrine
Central nervous
Sensory
Peripheral nervous
The autonomic system is divided into which two systems?
Somatic, autonomic
Sympathetic, parasympathetic
Motor, sensory
Input, output
Myelin is a lipid insulation produced the ________.
Microglia
Oligodendrocytes
Astrocytes
Ependymal cells
Which part of the neuron is responsible for cell metabolism?
Body
Dendrite
Axon
Synapse
Neurons with the ability to monitor the environment are called ____________ neurons.
Accessory
Motor
Sensory
Output
Neurons are able to generate tiny electrical currents changing the ____________ of their membranes.
Composition
Shape
Pathway
Permeability
If a cell is more positively charged than it is when resting, it is said to be ________.
Refractory
Repolarized
Depolarized
Polarized
A cell which is more negatively charged than at rest is ________.
Polarized
Hyperpolarized
Depolarized
Refractory
Impulses are conducted rapidly if ____________ is present.
Calcium
Sodium
Myelin
Spinal fluid
Which of the following is a medical disorder in which the myelin in the CNS has been destroyed ________.
Multiple sclerosis
Muscular dystrophy
Guillain-Barré’ syndrome
Myasthenia gravis
The nerves going to the upper limbs join the spinal cord at the ____________ region.
Cervical
Thoracic
Lumbar
Sacral
The third, innermost layer of the meninges is called the ________.
Dura mater
Arachnoid mater
Pia mater
Epidural mater
Medication is often injected into the ____________ space to alleviate pain.
Vertebral
Epidural
Subdural
Subarachnoid
Which part of the spinal cord carries sensory information?
Commissure
Ventral root
Column
Dorsal root
Which spinal cord tracts carry sensory information?
Superficial
Ventral
Ascending
Inferior
Acute treatment for spinal cord injury includes ________.
Ice
Heat
Immobilization
Physical therapy
Which of the following is not one of the three broad categories of causes in peripheral neuropathy?
Trauma
Paralysis
Systemic
Infection/autoimmune
A quadriplegic with damage high in the cervical spinal cord may have a paralyzed diaphragm, such that the patient cannot ________ on his own.
Breathe
Swallow food
Close their eyes
Speak
The autonomic nervous system is a subdivision of the ________.
Central nervous system
Sympathetic nervous system
Peripheral nervous system
Parasympathetic nervous system
Dendrites ________.
Are usually highly branched
Carry impulses away from the cell body
Are usually surrounded myelin
All of the above
Sensory neurons are also called ________.
Interneurons
Input neurons
Output neurons
Glia cells
Neurons that carry information between neurons are called ________.
Interneurons
Efferent neurons
Motor neurons
Afferent neurons
This type of glia cell produces myelin for cells in the brain ________.
Microglia
Oligodendrocytes
Astrocytes
Interneurons
Inflammation of the membranes covering the brain and spinal cord is called ________.
Encephalitis
Meningitis
Blepharitis
Polyneuritis
This type of glia cell attacks microbes and removes debris.
Microglia
Oligodendrocyte
Astroglia
Neurilemma
Which of the following statements is not true of multiple sclerosis?
It is considered a myelin disorder.
Patients may have disturbances in vision, balance, speech, or movement.
Most patients are initially diagnosed with relapsing-remitting MS, but at least 50% of them will progress to the chronic progressive form.
It affects 2,000–4,000 people in the United States.
When a cell becomes stimulated (excited) ________.
The interior of the neuron becomes more negative
Sodium gates in the cell membrane close
Sodium gates in the cell membrane spring open
The entire neuron remains at rest
The outermost of the meninges is the ________.
Pia mater
Choroid plexus
Arachnoid mater
Dura mater
Loss of motor and sensory control of the trunk of the body and lower extremities as a result of a spinal cord injury describes __________.
Peripheral neuropathy
Quadriplegia
Paraplegia
A slipped disk
This disease is characterized ascending paralysis ________.
Myasthenia gravis
Polio
Guillain Barré syndrome
Charcot Marie Tooth disorder
This disease is characterized progressive fluctuating muscle weakness starting in the facial or eye muscles ________.
Myasthenia gravis
Polio
Guillain Barré syndrome
Charcot Marie Tooth disorder
Patients who have an injury to their cervical spinal cord segment and are paralyzed in all four limbs are known as ________.
Paraplegics
Quadriplegics
Suffering from Guillain Barré syndrome
None of the above
Patients with injuries to the thoracic spinal cord segment with two paralyzed legs are said to be ________.
Paraplegics
Quadriplegics
Suffering from Guillain Barré syndrome
None of the above
A potentially fatal condition is an infection of the meninges called ________.
Polio
Meningectomy
Meningitis
All of the above
This inflammatory condition is a result of repetitive motion and leads to numbness in the palm and fingers ________.
carpal tunnel syndrome
meningitis
myasthenia gravis
botulism
An injection of a local anesthetic into the spinal column is called a(n) ________.
epiphysis
epidural
subdural
cutaneous
Spinal root directional terms are ________:
anterior and posterior
superior and inferior
Dorsal and ventral
distal and proximal

Short Answer

Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question.

The ____________ or parasympathetic branch of the nervous system deals with maintenance of homeostasis.
The glial cells which remove debris are called ____________.
The ___________ horn contains motor neurons.
There are twelve pairs of ________ nerves.
The spinal ____________, projecting from both sides of the spinal cord in pairs, fuse to form spinal nerves.
Branches and recombinations of nerves are called ____________.
____________ are the simplest form of motor output.
During ______________ of the action potential, sodium ions are flowing into a cell.
The ________________ tract carries pain and temperature information.
The input side of the nervous system is known as ____________.
The period when a cell is unable to accept another stimulus is the ____________ period.
Bare spots between adjacent cells are called nodes of ____________.
Tiny sacs at nerve terminals, called ____________, release contents from the cell when calcium flows in.
____________ inhibit the release of pain neurotransmitters.
The membrane that is like a spider web is called ____________.
The lipid ________ increases action potential conduction speed.
Guillain-Barré syndrome is a rapid onset paralysis caused inflammation of ________ nerves.
Repetitive motion can cause ________ syndrome in the wrists.
A(n) ________ is a group of nerve cell bodies outside the CNS.
Preganglionic neurons release the neurotransmitter ________ (Do not use the abbreviation).
Following a spinal cord injury, the difference between being able to breathe on your own or requiring a(n) ________ is literally a matter of centimeters.
Bruises to the spinal cord may resolve with time and rehabilitation, but a severed, or crushed spinal cord is usually a(n) ________ injury.
A very common form of peripheral neuropathy caused repetitive motion is ________.
Epidural injections of steroids are sometimes prescribed for patients with chronic lower back injuries to relieve pain, and ________.
The most common systemic disorder that causes peripheral neuropathy is ________.
The whole series of permeability changes within the cell and the resultant changes in charge across the cell membrane is called the ________.
Between adjacent glial cells on axons are tiny bare spots called ________.
The neurotransmitter group ________ inhibit release of pain neurotransmitters.
The ________ is located in a hollow tube running inside the vertebral column from the foramen magnum to the second lumbar (L2) vertebrae.
________ is caused an autoimmune attack on the myelin in the central nervous system.
Guillain Barré syndrome is the autoimmune destruction of the ________ nervous system myelin and often occurs after a viral infection.
________ is an autoimmune attack of the acetylcholine receptor at the neuromuscular junction.
________ is caused destruction of ventral horn motor neurons poliomyelitis virus.
________ is usually mechanical injury to spinal cord tissue.
________ damage to peripheral nerves may be due to injury or illness.

True/False

Write ‘T’ if the statement is true and ‘F’ if the statement is false.

____ 1. ‑The autonomic system controls voluntary movement.

____ 2. Oligodendrocytes make myelin.

____ 3. ‑Potassium ions move across neurons during depolarization.

____ 4. There are eight cervical nerves.

____ 5. ‑The segments of the spinal cord are named for their function.

____ 6. Guillain-Barré’ syndrome is incurable.

____ 7. ‑SSRIs prevent the clean up of a neurotransmitter.

____ 8. ‑The peripheral nervous system is everything outside the brain and spinal cord.

____ 9. ‑Myasthenia gravis is an autoimmune disorder in which the immune system attacks and destroys acetylcholine receptors.

____10. ‑A synapse is a junction between two nodes of Ranvier.

____11. ‑Electrical synapses use neurotransmitters to send information to other cells.

____12. ‑Dendrites generate and send signals to other cells.

____13. Action potentials are “all or none.”

____14. Cell bodies are myelinated.

____15. Myelinated axons are white.

Essay

Write your answer in the space provided or on a separate sheet of paper.

Explain how multiple sclerosis affects the body.

____________________________________________

List the steps in chemical synaptic transmission.

____________________________________________

Define the purpose of the following cells: microglia, oligodendrocytes, astrocytes, Schwann cells, and ependymal cells.

____________________________________________

List the three phases of the action potential.

____________________________________________

List the meninges and explain their anatomy.

____________________________________________

Chapter 10

Multiple Choice

Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.

What is the largest part of the brain?
Cerebellum
Cerebrum
Brain stem
Hypothalamus
The grooves and ridges of the brain are known as ____________.
Hemispheres
Lobes
Convolutions
Meninges
Heart beat, breathing, and the cardiovascular system are controlled the ____________.
Medulla oblongata
Midbrain
Cerebellum
Cerebrum
The internal anatomy of the brain has which structure?
White matter only
White matter surrounded gray matter
Gray matter only
Gray matter surrounded white matter
The right and left hemisphere of the cerebrum are connected the ____________.
Postcentral gyrus
Precentral gyrus
Corpus callosum
Ventricles
Which structure in the diencephalon relays information to the cerebrum?
Thalamus
Hypothalamus
Pineal body
Pituitary gland
What cranial nerve is chiefly responsible for eye movements?
Olfactory
Facial
Hypoglossal
Oculomotor
What number cranial nerve is the vagus nerve?
X
II
VIII
XII
To what sense does somatic sensation refer?
Taste
Touch
Smell
Vision
Which tract carries fine touch and vibration to the cerebral cortex?
Dorsal column tract
Spinothalamic tract
Spinocerebellar tract
Ventral column tract
Once touch information is sent to the brain, understanding will occur in the ____________ area.
Sensory association relay
Ganglionic association
Somatic sensory cortex
Somatic sensory association
After a plan for movement has been developed, it leaves the ____________ and connects with neurons in the thalamus.
Nuclei
Limbic system
Motor cortex
Spinal tract
Where are the neurons for the autonomic system located?
Corpus callosum
Spinal cord and brain stem
Cerebral cortex
Inside neurotransmitters
A woman falls down a flight of stairs carrying a large box. She is admitted to the hospital paralyzed on the right side and unable to speak. Where is her injury?
Spinal cord
Temporal lobe
Frontal lobe
Brainstem
During surgery, general anesthesia inhibits the ____________, causing unconsciousness in the patient.
Reticular system
Basal nuclei
Limbic system
Hypothalamus
Which of these is a type of paralysis?
Spastic
Bivalvular
Reflexive
Radical
Some patients with a severe case of ________ must be kept on a ventilator until the paralysis resolves.
Guillain Barré syndrome
Muscular dystrophy
Multiple sclerosis
Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis
A subdural hematoma would be between the ________.
Arachnoid mater and subarachnoid
Dura mater and the arachnoid mater
Dura and vertebral column
Arachnoid and pia mater
A brain injury with swelling and bleeding with possible severe hemorrhaging (hematoma) is known as a ________.
Concussion
Contusion
TIA
CVA
Which of the following statements is not true of the cerebellum?
It is considered the “little brain.”
It lies under the occipital lobe of the cerebrum.
It is responsible for sensory and motor coordination and balance.
It helps regulate water balance and sleep cycles.
The somatic nervous system carries impulses from the brain and spinal cord to ________.
Cardiac muscle tissue
Skeletal muscles
Smooth muscles
All of the above
A mild brain injury is commonly known as a ________.
Contusion
Hemorrhage
Hematoma
Concussion
A ________, which is swelling and bleeding at the site of injury, is more serious than a concussion.
Convulsion
Hemorrhage
Hematoma
None of the above
A ________ is caused disruption of blood flow to a portion of the brain due to either hemorrhage or blood clot.
Cerebrovascular accident
Stroke
a and b only
None of the above
A mini stroke is known as a ________.
TIA
Transient necrotic attack
Stroke
a and b only
A ________ is a pool of blood between any of the layers of meninges and the skull.
Contusion
Hemorrhage
Hematoma
Concussion
This is the most common cause of dementia among people 65 years or older ________.
Alzheimer’s disease
Parkinson’s disease
Dementia
Travis’ disease
Which fissure divides the brain into a left and right hemisphere?
transverse
longitudinal
medial
sagittal
The lobe responsible for vision ________:
occipital
frontal
parietal
medial
The lobe responsible for taste ________:
frontal
parietal
temporal
occipital
This structure is responsible for the secretion of melatonin ________.
pituitary gland
thalamus
hypothalamus
pineal body
Hydocephalus is a result of an excess of what fluid?
blood
CSF
CNS
ALS
A group of nerve cell bodies outside the CNS is called a ________.
ganglion
glia
dendrites
axons
The system that controls mood ________.
reticular
somatic
sympathetic
limbic
A non-progressive movement disorder exhibiting classic spastic paralysis
muscular dystrophy
Huntington’s disease
cerebral palsy
CVA

Short Answer

Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question.

The _______ is divided into two hemispheres.
The ____________ lobes are responsible for conscious thought.
Damage to the _____________ lobes leads to sensory perception problems.
Heartbeat is controlled in the ____________.
The size of the map of a body part in the postcentral gyrus is determined the _____________ of the body part.
Hydrocephalus is treated medication and inserting a(n) ____________.
Cross communication between the right and left sides of the brain is through the ____________.
The diencephalon includes the ____________, hypothalamus, pineal body, and pituitary gland.
The pineal body secretes the hormone ____________.
Dizziness is one symptom of damage to the _________________ cranial nerve.
The XII cranial nerve, the ____________, is under the tongue.
A(n) ____________ is a group of nerve cell bodies outside the CNS.
Preganglionic neurons release the neurotransmitter ____________.
A stroke is also known as a(n) ____________ (Do not use abbreviation).
An accumulation of blood between the dura mater and arachnoid space is called a(n)____________.
Emotions are integrated in the ________ lobes.
Brain cavities are called ________.
The X cranial nerve is the ________ nerve.
Brain damage similar to that caused traumatic brain injury is caused a lack of oxygen, strokes, or brain ________.
The ventricles of the brain, the central canal of the spinal cord, and the subarachnoid space, surrounding both parts of the CNS, are all filled with ________(CSF).
The ________ nerve is sensory cranial nerve, responsible for hearing and balance.
The ________ is an anatomical/physiologic protective structure of the brain believed to consist of walls of capillaries in the CNS and surrounding glial membranes.
________(CP) is a permanent, non-progressive set of motor deficits diagnosed in infants and young children, generally thought to be due to damage to the motor cortex.
The ________ division of the autonomic nervous system controls the flight-or-fight response.
________ is a condition of excess CSF in brain due to trauma, birth defects, tumors, etc.
Damage to brain tissue due to mechanical injury, lack of oxygen, or brain hemorrhage causes ________ brain injury.
Risk factors for ________ include premature birth, low birth weight, developmental abnormalities, and perinatal brain injury.

True/False

Write ‘T’ if the statement is true and ‘F’ if the statement is false.

____ 1. ‑Gyri and sulci are known as convolutions.

____ 2. Parietal lobes are responsible for vision.

____ 3. ‑The pons is inferior to the medulla oblongata.

____ 4. ‑The midbrain is the most superior portion of the brainstem.

____ 5. ‑The diencephalon controls hormone levels.

____ 6. Thirst is regulated in the thalamus.

____ 7. ‑Respiratory arrest is a clear sign of brain damage after a fall.

____ 8. The optic nerve controls smell.

____ 9. Pain is perceived in the skin.

____10. ‑The limbic system controls emotions and moods.

____11. ‑The parasympathetic system controls the “fight or flight” response.

____12. ‑A brain tumor in the frontal lobe might cause significant changes in personality.

____13. ‑Paralysis is the inability to control voluntary movement.

____14. ‑Cerebral palsy usually begins after age 50.

____15. Ministrokes are called “TIAs.”

Essay

Write your answer in the space provided or on a separate sheet of paper.

Explain why cerebral spinal fluid balance is important in the brain.

____________________________________________

List the twelve cranial nerves.

____________________________________________

Explain how we interpret touch.

____________________________________________

Explain why hands, lips, and head have so many neurons.

____________________________________________

List five common effects of a stroke.

____________________________________________

Chapter 11

Multiple Choice

Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.

Which of the following is listed as one of our visceral senses?
Touch
Pain
Hunger
Heat
The ____________ of the eye works similarly to the shutter of a camera.
Eyelid
Lens
Cornea
Iris
Your tears act as a lubricant and ____________ to protect the eyes from microorganisms.
Antiseptic
Moisture
Bath
Glaze
The cornea is found within the ____________ of the eye.
Sclera
Choroid
Retina
Conjunctiva
The eye receives most of its nourishment from the vessels within the ____________.
Retina
Sclera
Conjunctiva
Choroid
The vision center of the brain is located in the ____________ lobe.
Optic
Occipital
Temporal
Hypothalamus
Light passes to the eye through what opening?
Eyeball
Lens
Pupil
Iris
To help diagnose sleep disorders, doctors will measure which stage of sleep?
REM
Myopia
PERLA
Amblyopia
What are the three tiny bones located in the middle ear?
Pinnas
Cerumen
Ossicles
Cochleas
The ____________ contain sensors necessary for equilibrium.
Cochlea
Semicircular canals
Vestibule
Incus
The bony labyrinth is another name for the ____________.
Auditory nerve
Outer ear
Middle ear
Inner ear
The process of sound waves traveling to the brain is known as ____________ conduction.
Sound
Sensorineural
Bone
Neural
____________ is the name given for the distinct taste of glutamates.
Gustatory
Umami
Meniere
Tinnitus
Tactile corpuscles is the name given to the receptors for which sense?
Taste
Smell
Hearing
Touch
Experiencing pain in the right shoulder due to liver disease is an example of ____________ pain.
Referred
Disguised
Phantom
Pseudo
Amblyopia develops most commonly in ________.
Adults
Children
Patients with astigmatism
The elderly
A patient who has itching in the ears due to a buildup of ear wax could be said to have too much ________.
Cerumen
Fluid
Eustachian
Cochlea
Clouding of the eye lens caused protein clumping is called ________.
Blepharitis
A cataract
Clouding
Astigmatism
Receptors of the ________ senses receive the signal of nausea.
Visceral
Cutaneous
Accommodation
Labyrinthitis
Cataract formation is attributed to all of these except ________.
Aging
Gender
Congenital defects
Trauma
In diabetic retinopathy, increased blood sugar damages the ________ in the retina of the eye.
Sclera
Lens
Conjunctiva
Blood vessels
All of the following are symptoms of otitis media except ________.
Sinus infection
Pus
Edema
Pain
Sight can be considered ________.
A general sense
A special sense
A chemoreceptor
Both b and c
Which of the following is not associated with the retina?
Rods
Lens
Cones
Photopigments
The external ear ends at the ________.
Auricle
Tympanic membrane
External auditory canal
Tragus
Which of the following is not a bone of the middle ear?
Cochlea
Stapes
Incus
Malleus
Which of the following structures in the inner ear is the organ of hearing?
Bony labyrinth
Semicircular canal
Vestibule
Cochlea
A defect of the ________ results in difficulty in visual detection of color and fine detail.
Lens
Cones
Rods
Cones and rods
The sense of touch can be considered ________.
A general sense
A special sense
A chemoreceptor
Both b and c
Receptors used to locate body parts are considered ________.
A special sense
A chemoreceptor
A thermoreceptor
A proprioceptor
Which of the following is not one of the three layers of tissue that forms the eyeball?
Conjunctiva
Sclera
Choroid
Retina
The sensor receptive cells in the retina that function best in dim light and enable night vision are the ________.
Iris
Pupil
Rods
Cones
An inflammation of the thin, transparent membrane covering the visible portion of the sclera and lining the inside of the eyelids results in ________.
Conjunctivitis
Choroiditis
Cornea abrasion
Lens distortion
A cloudy or opaque area in the normally clear lens of the eye is called a ________.
Stye
Detachment
Cataract
None of the above
Vision impairment as a result of old age and the loss of elasticity in the lens is called ________.
Astigmatism
Myopia
Presbyopia
Diplopia
A chronic disease of the inner ear marked a recurring syndrome of vertigo, tinnitus, and progressive hearing loss is called ________.
Cholesteatoma
Otosclerosis
Meniere’s disease
Mastoiditis
Which of the following is attributed to the development of cataracts?
Trauma
Congenital defects
Aging
All of the above
If left untreated, cataracts can lead to what?
Blindness
Presbyopia
Myopia
Hyperopia
Farsightedness is also known as ________.
Hyperopia
Myopia
Presbyopia
Amblyopia
Farsightedness that is due to the aging process is known as ________.
Hyperopia
Myopia
Presbyopia
Amblyopia
Nearsightedness is also known as ________.
Hyperopia
Myopia
Presbyopia
Amblyopia
Lazy eye is also known as ________.
Hyperopia
Myopia
Presbyopia
Amblyopia
Swimmer’s ear is also known as ________.
External otitis
Otitis Media
Internal otitis
None of the above
Symptoms of otitis media include all of the following except ________.
Pus
Arthralgia
Edema
Pain
A feeling of dizziness and or whirling in space is called ________.
Vertigo
Purulence
Eczema
Tinnitus
Ringing in the ears is also known as ________.
Vertigo
Purulence
Eczema
Tinnitus

Short Answer

Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question.

Skin is the location of receptors for your sense of _________________.
The ____________ is the colored part of the eye.
The vitreous humor is in the ____________ chamber of the eye.
The globe-shaped organ of vision is the ____________.
The ____________ is the opening through which light passes into the eye.
____________ is a disease characterized increased pressure in the eye.
The _______________ contains light-sensitive neurons.
Lazy eye is called ____________.
The signals from the eye are carried on the cranial nerve known as __________________.
Pink eye is called ____________.
What you perceive as taste is mainly affected the sense of ____________________.
The bones of the middle ear are the malleus, incus, and ____________.
The ____________ or auricle is the external part of the ear.
The eardrum is also called the ____________ membrane.
The tubes that connect the middle ear to the pharynx are called ____________ tubes.
Nearsightedness is called ________.
If the eye cannot focus on nearobjects, the condition is called ________ or hyperopia.
A clouded lens is called a(n)________.
There are times when an optometrist needs to dilate the pupils for better ________ of inner eye parts during the exam.
Acute conjunctivitis is commonly called ________ aureus.
In glaucoma, peripheral vision is reduced, which eventually progresses to ________ vision and then blindness.
Otitis media can perforate the ________ membrane (eardrum).
Labyrinthitis is an inflammation of the ________ ear and is usually caused infections and can cause vertigo.
Hyperopia is when the eye cannot focus properly on ________ objects.
Tinnitus can occur as a result of chronic exposure to loud ________.
The ________ or colored part of the eye helps regulate the amount of light that enters the eye.
The projecting part of the ear which collects and directs sound waves into the auditory canal is called the pinna or ________.
________ (farsightedness) occurs when the eye cannot focus properly on nearobjects.
The ________ begins in the inner ear and carries the amplified vibrations from the tympanic ossicles.
Continued sensory stimulation causes some sensors to desensitize in an interesting phenomenon called ________.
Pain receptors are also called ________.
Pain is felt for as long as the stimulus is there that is c.ausing it or unless a person is under ________.
The ________ glands produce tears, spread over the eye surfaces blinking, which are needed for constant cleansing and lubrication.
The sclera contains a specialized portion called the ________, which is transparent to allow light rays to pass into the eye.
________ is caused increased pressure in the fluid of the eye, which interferes with optic nerve functioning.
________ is an inflammation of the membrane that lines the eye characterized pink or red swollen eyes.
The acute infective phase of conjunctivitis is commonly called ________.
A(n) ________ is a condition in which the lens loses its flexibility and transparency and light cannot pass through the clouded lens.
________ is caused increased pressure in the fluid of the eye, which interferes with optic nerve functioning.
________ is an acute infection of the middle ear, commonly caused a bacteria or virus, and is frequently found in infants and young children.
________ is frequently associated with an upper respiratory infection such as the common cold.
If left untreated, otitis media can cause a perforation of the ________ or eardrum.
________ is an inflammation of the inner ear and is usually caused infections.
________ is a chronic condition that affects the labyrinth and leads to progressive hearing loss and vertigo.
________ can be either partial or complete and is caused a variety of conditions, ranging from inflammation and scarring of the tympanic membrane to auditory nerve and brain damage.
Clinically, ________ can occur as a result of chronic exposure to loud noises, Meniere’s disease, some medications, wax build-up, or various disturbances to the auditory nerve.

True/False

Write ‘T’ if the statement is true and ‘F’ if the statement is false.

____ 1. The malleus is the outer ear.

____ 2. The sense of smell is called gustatory.

____ 3. ‑Sound is transmitted to the brain hair cells.

____ 4. ‑The signal is carried from the ear to the brain the optic nerve.

____ 5. ‑Bacteria from the nasal cavity can travel to the ear.

____ 6. Lacrimal glands are endocrine glands.

____ 7. ‑Tears act as an antiseptic to decrease germs in the eyeball.

____ 8. The vitreous humor is watery.

____ 9. Rods are active in dim light.

____10. ‑Photopigments undergo chemical changes when light hits them.

____11. ‑The innermost layer of the eye is the cornea.

____12. ‑Ciliary muscles surround the lens in the eye.

____13. The lens is located behind the pupil.

____14. ‑PERLA stands for pupils, equal, rotating to the light, and accommodating.

____15. REM sleep refers to rapid eye movement.

Essay

Write your answer in the space provided or on a separate sheet of paper.

List the five senses and their organs.

____________________________________________

Describe how your eye is like a camera.

____________________________________________

Follow the path of sound from air to the brain.

____________________________________________

Describe why children get otitis media.

____________________________________________

Describe referred and phantom pain.

____________________________________________

Chapter 12

Multiple Choice

Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.

Which of the endocrine organs can effectively control the pituitary gland?
Pancreas
Hypothalamus
Thyroid
Pineal
Chemical messengers released directly into the bloodstream, with the ability to affect cells for hours or days, are called ________.
Neurotransmitters
Dendrites
Hormones
Sensory cells
A specific type of hormone, called ____________, has the ability to interact directly with the cell’s DNA.
Adrenaline
Protein
Sebum
Steroids
A standard level, known as the ____________, is necessary to maintain the body’s homeostasis.
Set point
Target level
Norm
Quotient
When a patient is experiencing a fever, the ____________ resets the body’s temperature set point.
Brain
Hypothalamus
Adrenal gland
Pituitary gland
Which of the following hormones are directly controlled the nervous system?
Oxytocin
Cortisol
Epinephrine
Insulin
One way in which the body will cope with increased stress is to increase the secretion of
Cortisol
Norepinephrine
Oxytocin
Prolactin
Which hormone, produced the pituitary gland, is responsible for decreased urination?
Prolactin
Antidiuretic hormone
Adrenocorticotropic hormone
Luteinizing hormone
The ____________ is part of the diencephalon and is commonly called the “master gland.”
Adrenal
Pineal
Thyroid
Pituitary
The ____________ is divided into a posterior and anterior segment.
Thyroid
Thymus
Pituitary
Adrenal
A stature disorder in which the body produces either too much or too little growth hormone is a disorder of which endocrine gland?
Anterior pituitary
Posterior pituitary
Adrenal medulla
Adrenal cortex
Thyroxin and triiodothyronine, hormones necessary for cell metabolism, are produced in the ____________ gland.
Pituitary
Adrenal
Thymus
Thyroid
____________ gland is important in regulating the blood glucose.
Thymus
Pancreas
Pineal
Thyroid
The ____________ glands are located above each kidney.
Thyroid
Adrenal
Pineal
Ovaries
What is the name of the condition in which the body is not producing adequate amounts of insulin?
Diabetes mellitus
Diabetes insipidus
Dwarfism
Hyperthyroidism
________ steroids are a class of molecules that cause an increase in muscle mass.
Anti-inflammatory
Anabolic
NSAIDs
Metabolic
Cushings’ disease causes weight ________ and Graves’ causes weight ________.
Gain, loss
Loss, loss
Loss, gain
Gain, gain
The release of norepinephrine and epinephrine into the blood stream increases all of these except ________.
Respiration
Saliva
Pulse or heart rate
Blood pressure
Prednisone can be used as an anti-inflammatory drug to treat ________.
Severe allergies
Rheumatoid arthritis
Other chronic conditions
All of the above
The typical onset of type I diabetes is before ________.
Puberty
Age 40
Age 5–6
Age 10
A woman is in labor but the uterine contractions stop. This could be caused insufficient ________ (a hormone).
Oxytocin
ADH
Pituitary hormone
Melatonin
A deficiency in the release of vasopressin (antidiuretic hormone [ADH]) the posterior pituitary gland causes ________.
Hypoglycemia
Dwarfism
Diabetes insipidus
None of the above
Treatment of diabetes mellitus includes ________.
A controlled diet and exercise
Insulin administration if needed
Blood and urine testing
All of the above
Hypersecretion of GH that causes overgrowth of the hands and feet, abnormal thickening of the bones of the face, and excessive overgrowth of soft tissue, occurring in adulthood, is called ________.
Acromegaly
Gigantism
Dwarfism
All of the above
Damage to the pituitary gland, which causes hypopituitarism, can result from ________.
Radiation
Surgical removal
Tumors
All of the above
The master gland of the endocrine system is the ________.
Thyroid gland
Pituitary gland
Adrenal gland
None of the above
Insulin and glucagon are produced the ________.
Pancreas
Thymus
Adrenal cortex
None of the above
Hypersecretion of cortisol causes ________.
Addison’s disease
Cushing’s syndrome
Myxedema
None of the above
Insufficient secretion of PTH the parathyroid gland is called ________.
Hyperpituitarism
Hypoparathyroidism
Hyperparathyroidism
Hypopituitarism
The syndrome caused hypersecretion of the adrenal cortex, which results in excessive circulating cortisol levels, fatigue, muscular weakness, and changes in body appearance is called ________.
Cushing’s syndrome
Hashimoto thyroiditis
Addison’s disease
None of the above
Which of the following statements is not true of the endocrine system?
The organs of the endocrine system are widely dispersed in the body.
All organs in the endocrine system are glands.
Endocrine glands secrete their products into ducts leading to body cavities.
Endocrine glands produce hormones.
Dwarfism can be caused a ________.
Hypersecretion of ACTH
Hyposecretion of ACTH
Hypersecretion of growth hormone
Hyposecretion of growth hormone
Which of the following is not true of oxytocin?
It is produced in the thyroid gland.
It causes the contractions of the uterus during labor.
It is one of the few hormones that is regulated a positive feedback loop.
It stimulates “milk letdown” in nursing mothers.
Which of the following is true of the adrenal medulla?
It responds to stimuli from the sympathetic nervous system.
It helps produce the “fight-or-flight” response.
It releases epinephrine.
All of the above are true of the adrenal medulla.
Which of the following is not true of the thymus gland?
It is located in the neck.
It is an endocrine gland.
It produces thymosin.
It is important in the body’s immune system.
Which of the following is not true of the pineal gland?
It is located in the brain.
It produces melatonin.
It helps regulate the body’s “biological clock.”
All of the above are true of the pineal gland.
A condition that is characterized the production of large amounts of very dilute urine is called?
Diabetes insipidus
Diabetes mellitus
Gestational diabetes
Juvenile diabetes
A condition that is characterized a decrease in pituitary function caused tumors, surgery, radiation, or head injury is called ________.
Hyperpituitarism
Cushing’s syndrome
Hypopituitarism
Addison’s disease
Which of the following hormones are not affected hypopituitarism?
ACTH
LH
GH
Oxytocin
An overproduction of pituitary hormones is called ________.
Cushing’s syndrome
Addison’s disease
Hyperpituitarism
Hypopituitarism
An over-production of cortisol causes ________.
Cushing’s syndrome
Addison’s disease
Graves’ disease
Hyperpituitarism
All of the following are symptoms of Cushing’s syndrome except ________.
Upper body obesity
Round face
Easy bruising
Hypoglycemia
Fatigue, feeling cold, dry skin, brittle nails, and leg cramps are all symptoms of which disease?
Hyperthyroidism
Hypothyroidism
Addison’s disease
Cushing’s syndrome
Sweating, muscle tremors, tachycardia, and irritability are symptoms of which disease?
Hyperthyroidism
Hypothyroidism
Addison’s disease
Cushing’s syndrome
Which of the following is an early symptom of hypoglycemia?
Nervousness
Weakness
Difficulty speaking
All of the above
Symptoms of Addison’s disease include all of the following except ________.
Low blood pressure
High blood pressure
Weight loss
Excessive skin pigmentation
In children, failure to attain normal height or abnormally slow growth are symptoms of ________.
Gigantism
Dwarfism
Type II diabetes
None of the above

Short Answer

Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question.

The liver breaks down glycogen into ____________.
If a diabetic checks her blood sugar and is ________ she should take some sugar.
____________ hormone stimulates tissue growth.
The pancreas secretes insulin and ____________.
A patient experiences agitation, increased heart rate and blood pressure. She thinks she is going insane. She has a hormone imbalance called _____________________.
Chemical messengers released endocrine glands are called ____________.
____________ moves calcium into bones.
____________ feedback increases the magnitude of change.
The ideal value for a body characteristic is called a(n) ____________.
If a person is dehydrated they will secrete less ________________ hormone from the posterior pituitary.
____________ hormone stimulates sperm production.
Uterine contractions are increased the hormone ____________.
The ____________ gland is located in the upper thorax.
The ___________________ secretes several vital steroid hormones.
The ____________ within the brain controls hormone levels, but is not called the master gland.
________ mellitus is due to a decrease in insulin secretion or decreased sensitivity to insulin.
The ________ gland secretes thyroxine.
________ tissue uses glucose from blood to form fat.
Addison’s disease is caused insufficient production of ________ corticosteroids.
Appropriate blood glucose levels are vital for cellular ________.
If GH secretion is insufficient during childhood, children do not grow to the standard height. This is a type of ________.
If stress becomes chronic, the secretion of ________ and cortisol, becomes pathological.
Hypopituitarism causes loss of any or all anterior ________ hormones, including ACTH, GH, LH, and TSH, causing a variety of symptoms.
Stature disorders result in well-below average height (called ________ ) or well-above normal height (called gigantism).
Cushing’s syndrome is caused over-secretion of ________.
The adrenal cortex makes dozens of steroid hormones known collectively as ________.
Glucagon puts glucose into the bloodstream mainly directing the liver to release glucose stored in the form of ________.
The ________ is largely responsible for maintaining blood sugar (glucose) levels at or near a set point.
The adrenal glands are split into two regions: the adrenal cortex, an outer layer, and the ________, the middle of the gland.
________ triggers our sleep peaking at night and causing drowsiness.
The ________ gland, located in the anterior portion of your neck, is responsible for secreting the hormones thyroxine (T4) and triiodothyronine (T3), under orders from the pituitary gland
If any of the body’s dozens of homeostatic values become seriously disrupted, the control systems work to bring them back to set point. This process is called ________.
One special class of hormones, ________, is particularly powerful because they can bind to sites inside cells passing easily through the target cell membrane.
The male gonad is responsible for secreting the hormone ________.
________, the most common cause of hyperthyroidism, is also an autoimmune disorder.
Hypopituitarism is characterized the loss of any or all ________ pituitary hormones.
Stature disorders that result in well-below-average height are called ________.
Oversecretion of growth hormone (GH) in adults, after bones have stopped growing, causes ________.
The most common cause of hypothyroidism is ________.
A common symptom of hyperthyroidism is ________.
A(n) ________ is the enlargement of the thyroid and can be the result of either hypothyroidism or hyperthyroidism.
________ is the primary side effect of insulin therapy.
________ is caused insufficient production of adrenal corticosteroids.
________ causes excess cortisol in response to stressors.
________ levels are increased during periods of stress.
Chronic stress causes both physiological and ________ changes.

True/False

Write ‘T’ if the statement is true and ‘F’ if the statement is false.

____ 1. Sweat glands are endocrine glands.

____ 2. ‑Melatonin is released the pineal gland.

____ 3. Ovaries secrete estrogen.

____ 4. Glucagon lowers blood sugar.

____ 5. ‑Hormonal targets are distant from secretion in the endocrine system.

____ 6. ‑Follicle Stimulating Hormone is secreted in the ovaries.

____ 7. Cortisol is secreted the adrenal gland.

____ 8. ‑Renin is secreted the anterior pituitary.

____ 9. Prolactin stimulates milk production.

____10. ‑Restlessness is a symptom of hyperthyroidism.

____11. Hypoglycemia is high blood sugar.

____12. ‑Left untreated, diabetes mellitus can be fatal.

____13. Epinephrine is also known as adrenalin.

____14. ‑Norepinephrine is both a hormone and a neurotransmitter.

____15. ‑Prednisone is used to prevent organ rejection.

Essay

Write your answer in the space provided or on a separate sheet of paper.

Explain how one endocrine gland is controlled another.

____________________________________________

Explain the control of blood sugar pancreatic hormones.

____________________________________________

Why is the use of injected steroids so dangerous?

____________________________________________

What is the purpose of a set point in the body?

____________________________________________

Describe how the thyroid and parathyroid glands interact.

____________________________________________

Chapter 13

Multiple Choice

Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.

Blood vessels that carry blood away from the heart are called ________.
Arteries
Arterioles
Veins
Capillaries
Blood is pumped to the body during this part of the cardiac cycle ________.
Atrial systole
Atrial diastole
Ventricular systole
Ventricular diastole
What is the name of the structure that separates the lower chambers of the heart?
Atrial mitral valve
Ventrical SA node
Interatrial septum
Interventricular septum
What is the vessel that brings blood to the heart from the trunk and pelvic region?
Superior vena cava
Inferior vena cava
Superior aorta
Inferior artery
What is another name for the left atrioventricular valve?
Atrial valve
Bicuspid valve
Tricuspid valve
Semilunar valve
Which section of the heart receives blood from the right coronary artery?
Right atrium
Left atrium
Right ventricle
Left ventricle
The group of pacemaker cells near the entrance of the superior vena cava form the ____________.
Bundle of His
Atrioventricular node
Myocardium
Sinoatrial node
Which cranial nerve releases a neurotransmitter that can decrease the pulse and force of contraction?
Abducens
Vagus
Hypoglossal
Trochlear
If heart rate decreases, what happens to blood pressure?
nothing
It depends on other conditions
It increases
It decreases
If a patient has been infected parasites, which white blood cell would be elevated in the bloodstream?
Eosinophil
Basophil
Neutrophil
Monocyte
Which cells are involved in the production of antibodies?
Monocytes
Lymphocytes
Erythrocytes
Platelets
Jill is Rh negative. Her first bawas Rh negative. She is pregnant again, but the bais Rh positive. Without medical treatment, will her antibodies attack the baby’s blood?
yes
no
probably not since her first child is Rh negative
probably yes since her first child is Rh negative
Capillary beds are fed the
Capillaries
Venules
Arterioles
Platelets
If the innermost wall of a vessel is damaged, the ____________ begin the repair attaching to the damaged site.
Fibrin
Platelets
Fibrinogen
Thrombin
What clotting protein, produced the liver, begins the clotting process?
Thrombin
Prothrombin
Fibrin
Fibrinogen
What color will blood exhibit if it has a high oxygen content?
Blue
Colorless
Bright red
Purple
The pH value measures the levels of ________.
WBCs and RBCs
Electrolytes
Antigens and antibodies
Acidity and alkalinity
Which WBC is effective in defending the body against parasites?
Eosinophil
Basophil
Neutrophil
Monocyte
What is the most common blood type among Americans?
A
B
O
AB
Peripheral vascular disease (PVD) is caused ________.
Hypertension
Hypotension
Angina
Atherosclerosis
Leukemia is usually due to bone marrow cancer, and creates a higher number of ________ than normal.
WBCs
Platelets
RBCs
Thrombocytes
Which of the following is not a cause of thrombocytopenia?
Vitamin K deficiency
Bone marrow cancer
Liver dysfunction
Proper spleen function
Ischemia of the myocardium causes ________.
Myocardial infarction
Angina
Heart failure
A murmur
The term for the stoppage of blood flow is ________.
Homeostasis
Hemosclerosis
Hemothrombus
Hemostasis
A substance that decreases the body’s ability to clot is ________.
Aspirin
Vitamin K
Vitamin A
Enzyme
The ________ nervous system signals blood vessels to constrict.
Parasympathetic
Central
Sympathetic
Peripheral
In terms of their location or movement, an embolus is a ________ clot, and a thrombus is a ________ clot.
Stationary, stationary
Floating/moving, stationary
Floating/moving, floating/moving
Stationary, floating/moving
The bicuspid or mitral valve is the valve ________.
Between the left atrium and left ventricle
That opens from the right ventricle into the artery
Between the right atrium and right ventricle
That opens from the left ventricle into the artery
Which of the following is not a white blood cell?
Neutrophil
Thrombocyte
Lymphocyte
All of the above are white blood cells
This is the approximate number of red blood cells in one cubic millimeter of blood.
1 million
3 million
5 million
7 million
The role of hemoglobin in the red blood cell is to ________.
Carry oxygen
Carry carbon dioxide
Carry hormones
Both a and b above
This clotting disorder is an inherited disorder.
Thrombosis
Thrombocytopenia
Hemophilia
Embolism
This is a condition where an artery has become abnormally widened because of a localized weakness in the arterial wall.
An aneurysm
Ischemia
Gangrene
Phlebitis
Another name for “hardening of the arteries” is ________.
Angina pectoris
Myocardial infarction
Arteriosclerosis
Embolism
This is a condition usually found in the legs where blood pools in the veins because the veins have become dilated and distorted.
An aneurysm
Phlebitis
Varicose veins
Gangrene
A heartbeat that is below 60 beats per minute is called ________.
Tachycardia
Bradycardia
Sinus dysrhythmia
Fibrillation
A person with type A blood ________.
Has anti-A antibodies
Has A antigens
Has anti-B antibodies
Both b and c above
The blood type considered the universal donor is type ________.
A
B
O
AB
The condition in which the patient experiences chest pain with exertion is ________.
Angina pectoris
Coronary artery disease
Myocardial infarction
Congestive heart failure
The condition in which a reduction in the quantity of either red blood cells or hemoglobin exists is ________.
Anemia
Thrombocytopenia
Leukemia
Polycythemia
Signs and symptoms of right-sided heart failure include all of the following except ________.
Jugular vein distention
Pulmonary edema
Edema or swelling of hands and feet
Splenomegaly
Which of the following is a sign or symptom of left-sided heart failure?
Jugular vein distention
Edema or swelling of hands and feet
Pulmonary edema
Hepatomegaly
Cardiac tamponade may result from ________.
Pericarditis
Endocarditis
Heart failure
Hypertension
Congestive heart failure is now called ________.
Pericarditis
Endocarditis
Heart failure
Hypertension
This drug commonly reduces or eliminates angina pectoris due to its ability to increase blood flow to the cardiac muscles dilating coronary blood vessels.
Epinephrine
Lasix
Oxygen
Nitroglycerin
Abnormal heart rhythms are called ________.
Arrhythmias
Sinus rhythm
Bradycardia
Tachycardia
________ is a condition in which chronic low levels of oxygen (due to lung disease or living in high altitudes) cause the body to produce more than normal amounts of erythrocytes to transport more efficiently the smaller amounts of available oxygen.
Primary polycythemia
Primary erythrocytopenia
Secondary polycythemia
Secondary erythrocytopenia
________ is caused bone marrow cancer stimulating an over-production of erythrocytes.
Primary polycythemia
Primary erythrocytopenia
Secondary polycythemia
Secondary erythrocytopenia
________ is a blood condition in which there is a less than normal number of red blood cells or there is abnormal or deficient hemoglobin.
Sickle cell anemia
Leukemia
Leukocytosis
Anemia
________ is an inherited condition in which red blood cells and hemoglobin molecules do not form properly.
Sickle cell anemia
Leukemia
Leukocytosis
Anemia
________ is usually due to bone marrow cancer, and is a condition in which a higher than normal number of white blood cells are produced.
Sickle cell anemia
Leukemia
Leukocytosis
Anemia
________ also exhibits as a situation in which there is a higher than normal number of white blood cells. In this case, the cause is often an infection that is being fought.
Sickle cell anemia
Leukemia
Leukocytosis
Anemia

Short Answer

Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question.

The ____________ is the tip of the heart, distal to the head.
The bicuspid valve is also called the ____________ valve.
Cardiac output is determined heart rate and __________________.
The ____________ side of the heart pumps blood to the lungs.
During a severe hemorrhage, blood vessels will ______________ causing an increase in peripheral resistance in an attempt to raise blood pressure.
Red blood cells are called ____________.
Type ____________ is the universal recipient of blood donations.
The middle layer of the vessel is the tunica ____________.
After leaving the AV node, the electrical impulse spreads to the _________________.
In an EKG, the __________________ wave corresponds to atrial depolarization.
____________ is the process in which neutrophils surround and ingest invaders.
____________ or clotting is the prevention of bleeding.
The smallest arteries are ____________.
During ventricular systole, the __________________ valves are closed.
The epicardium is also the ________________________.
The sinoatrial node is also called the ________.
________ is the chemical symbol for mercury.
________ defend against parasites.
A lower number of white cells than normal is ________.
Tissue death is called ________ or necrosis.
Extremely low blood pressure, as in shock, can affect blood profusion to vital organs and cause tissue damage and ________.
Peripheral vascular disease is a condition caused plaque buildup called atherosclerosis in the ________ arteries.
In a blood transfusion, if the patient receives blood of the wrong blood type, the donor’s antigens and the recipient’s antibodies ________ and cause serious harm or death.
The medication nitroglycerin increases blood flow to cardiac muscle vasodilation of the ________ blood vessels.
Women who smoke and use oral contraceptives are at a higher risk of formation of thrombi in the blood vessels, which can break off to become ________.
________ is a type of blood cancer that can cause increased WBCs.
When an infection occurs, the body produces a(n) ________ than normal number of neutrophils, which are one type of WBC.
The first hour of a myocardial infarction (heart attack) is critical, so emergency services should be called immediately even if the patient ________ they are having a heart attack.
Anemia is a blood condition in which there are fewer than normal RBCs or there is an abnormality or deficiency of ________.
Antibodies often react with the antigens that caused them to form, and the antigens stick together, or ________, in little clumps.
A high-fat and high-salt diet, age, obesity, smoking, stress, and decreasing flexibility of the blood vessels can all contribute to ________.
A type of clot called a(n) ________ or emboli can partially or totally block blood flow to a portion of the heart, resulting in a coronary thrombosis, which can cause a heart attack.
________ is a condition in which there are fewer than normal circulating platelets.
Since type AB doesn’t contain plasma anti-A antibodies or anti-B antibodies, it can’t clump with any donated blood that contains A or B antigens. Because of this, a type AB person is labeled a(n) ________.
Basophils are important because they secrete the chemical ________, which helps to keep blood from clotting as it courses through blood vessels.
A(n) ________ is a result of blood leaking backward due to a faulty heart valve or a narrowed valve opening.
________ is a narrowing of a valve and can be caused rheumatic fever, congenital origin, or the aging process.
A(n) ________ is a weakening and distortion of the walls of an artery and can be caused hypertension or trauma.
________ is often called chest pain and is caused ischemia of the myocardium, as a result of poor blood perfusion of the heart tissue.
Coronary artery disease or CAD is an insufficient blood flow to the heart tissue. It is usually due to ________ but may be due to clot(s) in a coronary artery.
A(n) ________ is a clot that has moved or traveled and can be caused thrombophlebitis, venous stasis, or contraceptives.
________ is a chronic increase in pressure and can be caused heredity, diet, or smoking.
________ can be caused conditions or situations that lead to a decreased blood flow to the heart tissue, and leads to ischemia or necrosis (Do not use the abbreviation).
________ veins are dilated and distorted blood veins that are normally found superficially in the legs but can also be found in the rectum.
________ may be caused decreased red blood cell (RB) production.
________ is an inherited bleeding disorder.
________ is a less than normal level of platelets, that may be due to leukemia, or bone marrow aplasia.

True/False

Write ‘T’ if the statement is true and ‘F’ if the statement is false.

____ 1. All arteries carry oxygenated blood.

____ 2. Arteries have thinner walls than veins.

____ 3. ‑It is called systole when the heart contracts.

____ 4. The vagus nerve increases heart rate.

____ 5. ‑The ventricles are contracted during the QRS interval of the EKG.

____ 6. Plasma is a yellowish fluid.

____ 7. Monocytes are erythrocytes.

____ 8. Type AB has no antigens.

____ 9. ‑The innermost layer of the blood vessel is the tunica interna.

____10. ‑During the final stage of clotting the clot becomes water soluble.

____11. ‑During severe dehydration, blood pressure rises.

____12. A floating embolus is a thrombus.

____13. ‑Decreased blood flow to tissues is called ischemia.

____14. Atherosclerosis is caused plaque.

____15. ‑Heart valves close when their tissue is depolarized.

Essay

Write your answer in the space provided or on a separate sheet of paper.

Draw the ECG tracing and describe what P, QRS, and T indicate.

____________________________________________

Trace the flow of blood through the heart from superior and inferior vena cave to aorta.

____________________________________________

Discuss why an O negative mother should be concerned about her second pregnancy.

____________________________________________

Explain the clotting process.

____________________________________________

Explain the factors that influence blood pressure.

____________________________________________

Chapter 14

Multiple Choice

Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.

During metabolism, your body produces the waste product ____________.
Oxygen
Nitrogen
Carbon monoxide
Carbon dioxide
The process of gas exchange between air and blood is called
Ventilation
External respiration
Internal respiration
Respiration
The respiratory system terminates at the
Alveoli
Bronchus
Bronchioles
Lungs
What region contains the coarse nasal hairs?
Pharyngeal
Vestibular
Olfactory
Laryngeal
____________ cells are responsible for the production of mucus.
Goblet
Epithelial
Cilia
Basal
The vocal cords are located in the ____________.
Nasal cavity
Larynx
Oropharynx
Laryngopharynx
The trachea extends from the larynx to the ____________ vertebrae.
2nd cervical
1st thoracic
6th thoracic
4th lumbar
Type II cells that line the alveoli are responsible for the production of
Carina
Surfactant
Carbon dioxide
Nitrogen
The diaphragm is covered a serous membrane called the ____________.
Visceral membrane
Visceral pleura
Musculo-serous membrane
Parietal pleura
The area of the left lung that corresponds to the right middle lobe is ____________.
Lingula
Hilum
Carina
Sternum
Which region of the brain controls breathing?
Hypothalamus
Cerebrum
Medulla oblongata
Occipital
All of these muscles aid ventilation except _______________ .
Abdominal
Pleural
Accessory
Respiratory
_____________________ is the amount of gas moved during normal ventilation.
Inspiratory reserve volume
Vital Capacity
Tidal Volume
Expiratory reserve volume
When the diaphragm contracts, lung volume ______________________.
Decreases
Increases
Stays the same
Changes depending on circumstances
The _______________ nerve carries impulses to the diaphragm.
Phrenic
Vagus
Diaphragmatic
Thoracic
Due to the structure of the ________, a large amount of moisture is added to the respiratory system every day.
Nares
Trachea
Conchae
Eustachian tube
The “clean-up” cells are located in the ________ layer of alveolar membrane.
Surfactant
Epithelial
Interstitial space
Capillary endothelium
The kidneys attempt to increase hemoglobin levels in the body the release of ________.
Iron
Oxygen
Erythrocytes
Erythropoietin
The diaphragm receives help from the ________ muscles in the activity of breathing.
Pleural
Thoracic
Accessory
Respiratory
Pleural effusion with pus is a(n) ________.
Hydrothorax
Empyema
Emphysema
Eczema
A lack of lung surfactant causes ________ lungs that resist expansion.
Floppy
Inflamed
Infected
Stiff
The majority of cases of chronic bronchitis are caused by
Asthma
Allergies
Smoking
Fungi
Which of the following is not part of the upper respiratory tract?
Trachea
Larynx
Pharynx
Nose
Which of the following is not part of the lower respiratory tract?
Trachea
Larynx
Bronchi
Lungs
Which of the following is not a subdivision of the pharynx?
Tracheopharynx
Nasopharynx
Oropharynx
Laryngopharynx
This structure is not a part of the larynx ________.
Thyroid cartilage
Vocal cords
Epiglottis
Eustachian tubes
The first respiratory structures without cartilage as a supporting tissue are ________.
Primary bronchi
Secondary bronchi
Bronchioles
Alveolar ducts
The movement of air into and out of the lung is called ________.
Evacuation
Perspiration
Respiration
Ventilation
The exchange of gases between the cells and the blood is called ________.
Evacuation
Perspiration
Respiration
Ventilation
The amount of air that can be forcibly taken in after normally inhaling is called ________.
Tidal volume
Residual volume
Inspiratory reserve volume
Expiratory reserve volume
A collection of air or gas in the thoracic cavity, as the result of a stab wound or gunshot wound to the chest describes a condition called ________.
Emphysema
Bronchiectasis
Pneumoconiosis
Pneumothorax
________ is a destructive disease of the alveoli and the adjacent capillary walls resulting in chronic dyspnea, cough, and the characteristic barrel chest.
Emphysema
Bronchiectasis
Pneumoconiosis
Pneumothorax
Which of the following is not a respiratory structure?
Larynx
Esophagus
Bronchi
Nose
The two most important respiratory control centers are located in this part of the brain ________.
Medulla oblongata
Pons
Cerebral cortex
Cerebellum
Chemoreceptors that help regulate breathing can be found ________.
In the medulla oblongata
In the carotid artery
In the aorta
Both b and c
Labored or difficult breathing is referred to as ________.
Apnea
Dyspnea
Eupnea
Cheyne-Stokes respiration
Shortness of breath is called ________.
Dyspnea
Eupnea
Orthopnea
Wheezing
________ is a condition in which there is air inside the thoracic cavity and outside of the lungs.
Pleuritis
Pleurisy
Pneumothorax
Hemothorax
________ is a condition in which there is an excessive build-up of fluid in the pleural space between the parietal and visceral pleura.
Pneumothorax
Pleural effusion
Pulmonary edema
Empyema
________ is pus in the pleural space.
Hemothorax
Pleural effusion
Hydrothorax
Empyema
________ is blood in the pleural space.
Hemothorax
Pleural effusion
Hydrothorax
Empyema
________ is distinguished having reversible airway narrowing and airway hyperreactivity; and is most commonly characterized as an inflammatory process.
Asthma
Emphysema
Chronic bronchitis
Bronchiectasis
________ is characterized anatomically as the permanent, abnormal enlargement of distal airway spaces and destruction of the alveolar walls.
Asthma
Emphysema
Chronic bronchitis
Bronchiectasis
________ is associated with a chronic productive cough, enlargement of mucous glands, and hypertrophy of the airway smooth muscle ________.
Asthma
Emphysema
Chronic bronchitis
Bronchiectasis
The inability to get air out of the lungs is known as ________.
Hyperinflation
Bronchospasm
COPD
Gas trapping
Which of the following drugs has as its basic purpose to reduce the work of breathing, increase the oxygen content of the blood, and reduce the work of the heart?
Antivirals
Insulin
Oxygen
Antibiotics
Which drug provides rapid relief of an acute situation of airway narrowing?
Bronchodilators
Steroids
Oxygen
Antibiotics

Short Answer

Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question.

The trachea branches into mainstem ____________.
The bronchi branch into ____________.
The part of the respiratory system that carries air but has no gas exchange capability is called the ____________________ zone.
The process of gas exchange is known as ____________.
Air filled cavities in the facial bones are known as ____________.
Food is prevented from entering the trachea the ____________.
The windpipe is known as the ____________.
The site of bifurcation in the bronchi is called the ____________.
Premature infants are often in danger due to a lack of __________________ in the lungs.
As CO₂ levels rise, pH decreases and ____________ rate increases.
The alveoli consists of _____________ cells.
The oropharynx is lined with _________________ epithelium.
A young woman dives into the surf, hitting her head and causing a spinal cord injury. She is in respiratory arrest. Her injury is most likely above the ___________________ spinal cord segment.
The motor neurons for ventilation are in the brain region known as the ______________________.
Red blood cell numbers are controlled a hormone released the _______________.
Oxygen is abbreviated as the chemical sign ________.
Carbon dioxide is abbreviated as ________.
The smallest blood vessels are known as ________.
Producing sound is known as ________.
Olfaction is the sense of ________.
The vocal cords are found in the ________.
The liquid ________ layer lines the alveoli.
Red blood cells are known as ________.
Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is a global term for the conditions of emphysema, and chronic ________.
In pleural effusion, if the fluid in the pleural space has pus, it is known as ________.
There has been recent concern about a multi drug-________ form of TB that does not respond to the usual TB drugs and that has a high mortality rate.
The terms iron-poor blood or tired blood come from the fact that a patient with low levels of iron tires easily due to low ________ or hemoglobin levels.
Excessive secretions and fluid, such as in pneumonia, act as barriers and reduce the ________ in the blood.
Bloody fluid found in the pleural cavity/space is called a(n) ________.
In susceptible individuals, ________ causes recurrent episodes of wheezing, breathlessness, chest tightness, and cough, particularly at night and in the early morning.
The lungs reside in the thoracic cavity and are separated a region called the ________, which contains the esophagus, heart, great vessels, and trachea.
Swallowed materials pass through the ________ to get to the stomach.
A(n) ________ is a condition in which there is an excessive build-up of fluid in the pleural space between the parietal and the visceral pleura.
The ________, or breastbone, is centrally located on the anterior portion of the thoracic cage and is comprised of the manubrium, body, and xiphoid process.
During increased physical activity or in disease states in which more oxygen is required, ________ are used to help pull up your rib cage to make an even larger space in the thoracic cavity.
________ is a respiratory infection causing pressure, pain and often a headache.
The nasopharynx contains lymphatic tissue of the immune system, called the ________, and passageways to the middle ear called eustachian tubes.
The major pathology of the upper airways include ________ or allergies of the sinuses, nose, or throat.
________, or sore throat, causes discomfort especially when swallowing.
________, or an inflamed voice box, is characterized hoarseness and loss of speech.
________ is a condition in which the alveoli of the lungs are either partially or totally collapsed.
________ is a lung infection that can be caused a virus, fungus, bacterium, aspiration, or chemical inhalation.
________ is defined as the presence of productive cough during 3 months of the year for 2 consecutive years, provided that other causes of chronic sputum production are excluded.

True/False

Write ‘T’ if the statement is true and ‘F’ if the statement is false.

____ 1. ‑The upper respiratory tract begins at the nares and ends at the trachea.

____ 2. ‑The nasal cavity is divided into right and left halves a septum.

____ 3. ‑The pontine respiratory group is the chief respiratory center.

____ 4. ‑Respiratory mucosa is ciliated cuboidal epithelium with goblet cells.

____ 5. The oropharynx is behind the mouth.

____ 6. ‑The major type of alveolar cell is Type II, or granular pneumocytes.

____ 7. ‑The hormone erythropoietin is released in the lungs.

____ 8. ‑Inspired objects usually lodge in the left lung.

____ 9. ‑The thoracic cavity and the upper side of the diaphragm are lined with the visceral pleura.

____10. ‑The hilum is the area where the root of each lung is attached.

____11. ‑The thoracic cage consists of twelve pairs of elastic arches of bone called ribs.

____12. The cerebrum controls breathing.

____13. ‑The dome-shaped muscle that acts to ventilate is the diaphragm.

____14. ‑The portion of the sternum where CPR is performed is the xiphoid process.

____15. ‑Atelectasis is the situation in which the air sacs collapse.

Essay

Write your answer in the space provided or on a separate sheet of paper.

List the changes in the layers of the wall of the respiratory system from conducting zone to respiratory zone.

____________________________________________

Why do we breathe through our noses?

____________________________________________

Discuss how the angle of branching of the bronchi makes a difference in which lung receives aspirations.

____________________________________________

Explain the mechanism of ventilation.

____________________________________________

Discuss the effect of surfactant.

____________________________________________

Chapter 15

Multiple Choice

Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.

In addition to storage of white blood cells the lymphatic system is also responsible for
Producing pathogens to fight infections
Producing fluids to supplement the cardiovascular system
Production of some types of white blood cells
Maturation of some types of red blood cells
Lymph nodes can be described as
Small encapsulated bodies
Patches of cytokines
Immature antibodies
Organelles of immunity
Lymphatic trunks from the lumbar region empty into the
Left lymphatic duct
Right lymphatic duct
Sacral duct
Thoracic duct
Which structure will sometimes disappear in adults?
Sinus
Spleen
Thymus
Pancreas
Unique molecules found on the outer surface of cell membranes are called
Antigens
Antibodies
Interferon
Cytokines
Innate immunity triggers a series of mechanisms that target specific pathogens; the mechanisms are called
Passive immunity
Helper cells
Activation cells
Adaptive immunity
The body has both physical and chemical ____________ to prevent invaders from entering.
Cells
Barriers
Nodes
Cytes
The first leukocytes to arrive at the site of damage are the
Neutrophils
Basophils
Mast cells
Dendrite cells
The ____________ cells release antibodies to destroy cells that carry non-self antigens.
Mast
B-lymphocytic
T-lymphocytic
Natural killer
What is the cytokine which is produced to stimulate macrophages and cause death of cancer cells?
Interferon
Interleukin
Cytokinase
Tumor necrosis factor
What name is given to the series of reactions responsible for activation of twenty normally inactive proteins?
Complement cascade
Inflammatory response
Margination selection
Differentiation process
For your body to launch an effective response to invading pathogens, innate immunity must join forces with the
Lymphatic system
Cardiovascular system
Adaptive immunity
Hypothalamus
There are two types of proliferation, one for ____________ and one for all other types of lymphocytes.
Natural killer cells
B-cells
Helper T-cells
Dendritic cells
____________ are essential for the reproduction of B cells and other types of cells.
Memory B-cells
Helper T-cells
Cytotoxic T-cells
Regulatory T-cells
Once the threat of invasion is over, the ____________ are responsible for “turning-off” the response.
Memory B-cells
Regulatory T-cells
Cytotoxic T-cells
Helper B-cells
The HIV virus targets ________ cells.
Natural killer cells
B-cells
Helper T-cells
Dendritic cells
It is because of adaptive ________ that people normally get chicken pox only once.
Immunity
WBCs
Antibodies
Antigens
Barriers include all of the following except ________.
Mucous membranes
Skin
Sebaceous glands
Nails
Which stage of cancer would mean it had spread to neartissues?
Stage four
Stage seven
Stage two
Stage five
Which of the following is not one of the immune system’s components?
Barrier
NSAID
Inflammation
Chemical
The ________ gland is larger in children because they are exposed to many new infections.
Thymus
Thyroid
Thalamus
Tinnitus
In rheumatoid arthritis, the immune system attacks the ________.
Pleural membrane
Mucous membrane
Synovial membrane
Myelin membrane
The ________ in the chest is part of the lymphatic system and helps T lymphocytes mature.
Pharyngeal tonsils
Spleen
Palatine tonsils
Thymus
The spleen is a lymph organ that filters blood and also acts as a reservoir for ________.
Water
Fat
Interstitial fluid
Blood
Getting a flu shot to protect against the flu is an example of ________.
Natural passive immunity
Natural active immunity
Artificial active immunity
Artificial passive immunity
The fetus receives antibodies from the mother which last several weeks after birth. This is an example of ________.
Natural passive immunity
Natural active immunity
Artificial active immunity
Artificial passive immunity
If you have had the chicken pox once, you will not get chicken pox again. This is an example of ________.
Natural passive immunity
Natural active immunity
Artificial active immunity
Artificial passive immunity
If you are exposed to hepatitis A and have not been vaccinated against it, you may receive antibodies from another person. This is an example of ________.
Natural passive immunity
Natural active immunity
Artificial active immunity
Artificial passive immunity
A cytokine produced cells in response to invasion a virus is ________.
Complement
Interferon
Interleukin
Mucus
The group of diseases that occur when antibodies develop and begin to destroy the body’s own cells is ________.
Immunodeficiency diseases
Autoimmune diseases
Immunocompetent diseases
Diseases of the reticuloendothelial system
The activated lymphocytes must make thousands of copies of themselves in order to fight off the thousands of pathogens reproducing in the body. This reproduction of lymphocytes is called ________.
Lymphocyte proliferation
Lymphocyte activation
Differentiation
Immunization
HIV infection and subsequently AIDS, is characterized severe decrease in immune function, particularly ________.
Memory B-cells
Neutrophils
Helper T-cells
Plasma cells
If the body is exposed to the same pathogen in the future, memory cells allow the body to mount a much faster response to the invasion known as the ________ response.
Primary
Secondary
Tertiary
Quaternary
What kind of cells produce antibodies?
T cells
B cells
NK cells
Neutrophils
Which of these is an autoimmune disease?
c and d only
Influenza
Rheumatoid arthritis
Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE)
In this stage of cancer, spread to distant tissues and organs is present ________.
Stage I
Stage II
Stage III
Stage IV
In this stage of cancer, no spread from the origin is present ________.
Stage I
Stage II
Stage III
Stage IV
In this stage of cancer, spread to nearlymph nodes is present ________.
Stage I
Stage II
Stage III
Stage IV
This stage of cancer is often terminal ________.
Stage I
Stage II
Stage III
Stage IV
The signs and symptoms of inflammation include all of the following except ________.
Cold
Pain
Swelling
Redness
Symptoms of rheumatoid arthritis include ________.
Joint stiffness
Symmetrical joint damage
Decreased range of motion
All of the above
Signs and symptoms of allergies can include all of the following except ________.
Weight loss
Wheezing
Upper respiratory infections
Hives

Short Answer

Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question.

The ____________ system is the transport system for pathogens and white blood cells.
Lymph capillaries empty into lymphatic ____________.
The ____________ is a lymphatic organ that destroys red blood cells.
The ____________ is the soft organ between the aortic arch and sternum.
Any organism that invades your body and causes disease is a(n) ____________.
____________ immunity is your body’s inborn ability to fight infection.
____________ are molecules on the outer surface of cells.
____________, or white blood cells, defend the body.
____________, and mast cells, release chemicals to promote inflammation.
Vaccination triggers ________________________ immunity.
Ultimately the cause of death in AIDS patients is ___________________.
Walling off an infected area is called ____________.
Selection of lymphocytes which react to antigens is called _______________ selection.
Redness, heat, swelling and pain are signs of ____________.
The reproduction of activated B cells is called _____________________.
________ fight parasitic worms.
________ means to break down or destroy.
Cancers that are diagnosed after they have already spread to other organs are much more likely to be ________.
There are several different types of leukemia based on the ________ of WBCs and the nature of the patient’s symptoms.
When the hypothalamus causes a rise in body temperature during an illness, it is purposely trying to destroy the invading ________.
Symptoms of leukemia are caused decreased function of WBCs (if the cells are immature) and decreased ________ of RBCs and platelets.
In ________ disorders, the body fails to recognize “self” and destroys its own tissue.
The inflammatory response is the same, whether it is a mechanical injury, a wound infection, damage due to a pathogen, or ________ throat.
A rise in body temperature is one way the immune system deliberately tries to kill a(n) ________.
The lumbar, intestinal, and intercostal trunk all empty into the ________ duct, a large duct that runs from the abdomen up through the diaphragm and into the left subclavian vein.
Cells have molecules on the outer surface of their membranes to distinguish whether they are friend or foe. These molecules are called ________.
Complement ________ is a complex series of reactions that activate 20 proteins that are usually inactive in the blood unless activated a pathogen invasion.
If an invader has an opportunity to enter the body, white blood cells, or ________, are responsible for defending the body against invaders.
________ are proteins produced damaged tissues and white blood cells that stimulate immune response in a variety of ways, including increasing inflammation, stimulating lymphocytes, and enhancing phagocytosis.
________ is characterized four cardinal signs: swelling, pain, heat, and redness.
The destruction of self-recognizing lymphocytes is known as ________.
________ arthritis is an autoimmune disorder in which the immune system attacks the synovial membrane of a patient’s joints.
Cytotoxic T cells release a cytokine called ________, which causes infected cells to develop holes in their membranes and die.
________ is staged and prognosis is determined the amount of metastasis, tumor characteristics, and lymph node involvement.
________ is a cancer of the bone marrow and blood, characterized the overproduction of white blood cells.
Inflammation that becomes systemic and is caused allergic reactions to insect stings, nuts, or shellfish is called ________.
________ is the rise in body temperature as a deliberate attempt the immune system to destroy the pathogens that have invaded the body.
________ disorders occur when the immune system attacks some part of the body. The body fails to recognize “self” and destroys its own tissue as if it were an invader.
________ arthritis is an autoimmune disorder in which the immune system attacks the synovial membrane of patient’s joints.
Systemic lupus erythematosis (SLE) is a(n) ________ disorder in which the immune system attacks a variety of structures in the body.
Acquired immune deficiency syndrome (AIDS) is an immune ________ disorder caused infection with the human immunodeficiency virus (HIV).
________ are caused the overreaction of the immune system to typically harmless antigens, like mold, pollen, or animal fur.
________ is caused the uncontrolled proliferation of lymphocytes.

True/False

Write ‘T’ if the statement is true and ’F’ if the statement is false.

____ 1. ‑Antigen displaying cells are infected pathogens so they can display the antigens.

____ 2. ‑Fever is caused neurotransmitters released pathogens.

____ 3. ‑Innate immunity improves with experience.

____ 4. ‑Antigens are the body’s weapons against disease.

____ 5. ‑Lymph nodes contain blood sinuses, and red and white pulp.

____ 6. ‑All lymphocytes are part of adaptive immunity.

____ 7. ‑Macrophages are part of innate immunity.

____ 8. Memory B cells remember pathogens.

____ 9. ‑An increase in cell number is called proliferation.

____10. ‑The Human Immunodeficiency Virus (HIV) targets CD-2 cells.

____11. ‑Natural immunity is acquired during vaccination.

____12. Macrophages ingest invaders.

____13. ‑Autoimmune disorders are the opposite of immunodeficiency disorders.

____14. ‑A hypersensitivity reaction is also called an allergy.

____15. ‑T lymphocytes are responsible for adaptive immunity known as antibody mediated immunity.

Essay

Write your answer in the space provided or on a separate sheet of paper.

Describe why nodes are located near lungs, digestive, and reproductive organs.

____________________________________________

Discuss how cancer is staged.

____________________________________________

How does self vs. non-self recognition affect the immune system?

____________________________________________

Compare and contrast innate vs. adaptive immunity.

____________________________________________

Explain why HIV causes severe immune deficiency attacking one type of cell.

____________________________________________

Chapter 16

Multiple Choice

Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.

The digestive tract begins at the oral cavity and ends at the ________.
Pharynx
Colon
Anus
Appendix
Which of the following is a function of the oral cavity?
Starch digestion
Protein digestion
Peristalsis
Nutrient absorption
An abnormally formed ____________ will interfere with the development of clear speech.
Molar
Frenulum
Vermiform
Duodenum
The smallest of the salivary glands are the ________.
Sublinguals
Submandibulars
Parotids
Subbuccals
The ____________ teeth are blade shaped and used for cutting food.
Incisor
Canine
Bicuspid
Molar
The ____________ is used both the digestive and respiratory systems.
Epipharynx
Oropharynx
Nasopharynx
Larynx
The esophagus differs from the rest of the alimentary tract in that it possesses no ________.
Adventitia
Muscularis
Mucosa
Serosa
The stomach has four regions, the area that connects with the small intestine is called the
Fundus
Body
Pylorus
Cardiac region
The stomach releases the hormone ____________ to aid in digestion.
Pepsin
HCL
Secretin
Gastrin
What is the last section of the small intestine, before it empties into the large intestine, called?
Duodenum
Stomach
Jejunum
Ileum
Which hormone is responsible for inhibiting the release of gastric juice?
SIP
Pepsin
CCK
Gastrin
This organ has an extra layer of muscle ________.
Stomach
Colon
Liver
Spleen
The appendix is attached at which area?
Colon
Anus
Cecum
Rectum
Which organ is responsible for the production of bile?
Liver
Stomach
Small intestine
Large intestine
Hepatocytes receive blood from both the hepatic artery and the _______________
Hepatic vein
Hepatic portal vein
Hepatic portal artery
Hepatic capillaries
The ________ is the base, or floor of the mouth.
Tongue
Soft palate
Labia
Hard palate
The structure responsible for the absorption of excess water is the ________.
Stomach
Large intestine
Liver
Spleen
Enzymes are necessary for digestion; ________ is produced to break down fats.
Nuclease
Lipase
Carbohydrase
Maltase
The type of hernia where the stomach protrudes through the diaphragm and into the thoracic cavity is ________.
Hiatal
Hepatic
Cholecystic
Celiac
Pancreatitis can be caused all but which one of the following?
Gallbladder disease
Excessive pancreatic enzyme activation
Lithotripsy
Excessive alcohol consumption
Which of these is not one of the causes of dental caries?
Carbohydrate-rich diet
LDL
Poor dental hygiene
Lack of regular dental visits
Lactose intolerant patients cannot digest the ________ in milk.
Protein
Sugar
Fat
Cholesterol
Hepatitis can be caused any of the following except ________.
The common cold
An infectious agent
A toxin
Shared needles
A colostomy may be the appropriate treatment for ________.
Hyperactive peristalsis
Allowing healing after surgery
Chronic constipation
None of the above
________ is a form of chronic inflammatory bowel disease.
Gastroenteritis
Irritable bowel syndrome
Crohn’s disease
Peritonitis
________ is caused a viral and/or bacterial infection and/or inflammation of the stomach and small intestine.
Gastroenteritis
Peritonitis
Irritable bowel syndrome
Crohn’s disease
Polyposis is a small tumor with a pedicle in the mucous membrane of the ________.
Stomach
Small intestine
Duodenum
Colon
The punching bag-shaped structure hanging down from the soft palate is called the ________.
Frenulum
Papillae
Uvula
Palatine tonsil
This type of tooth is responsible for crushing and grinding.
Incisor
Canine
Premolar
Molar
This substance is the outer covering of the shell of the tooth in the crown.
Cementum
Enamel
Dentin
Pulp
Most of the interior of the tooth is made of this substance.
Cementum
Enamel
Dentin
Gingiva
This condition is the cracking and associated inflammation found on the lips and corners of the mouth are not caused cancer, but rather can be traced to infections, allergies, or even to nutritional deficiency.
Periodontitis
Dental caries
Gingivitis
Cheilitis
Which of the following is not a salivary gland?
Sublingual gland
Submandibular gland
Submaxillary gland
Parotid gland
This enzyme is produced the salivary glands and begins the chemical digestion of carbohydrates ________.
Salivary amylase
Salivary maltase
Salivary sucrase
Salivary lactase
The order of the segments of the small intestine from the stomach to the large intestine is which of the following?
Ileum, jejunum, duodenum
Duodenum, ileum, jejunum
Jejunum, duodenum, ileum
Duodenum, jejunum, ileum
This structure increases the surface area of the lining of the small intestine ________.
Peptase
Lacteals
Villi
Chyle
Pancreatic juice contains enzymes that help digest ________.
Carbohydrates
Fats
Proteins
All of the above
The order in which material passes through the large intestine is ________.
Descending colon, transverse colon, ascending colon, cecum
Ascending colon, cecum, transverse colon, descending colon
Cecum, descending colon, transverse colon, ascending colon
Cecum, ascending colon, transverse colon, descending colon
The process of carbohydrate digestion begins in the ________.
Mouth
Stomach
Small intestine
Large intestine
Which of the following is the end product of protein digestion?
Fatty acids
Glycerol
Simple sugars
Amino acids
Protein digestion begins in the ________.
Mouth
Stomach
Small intestine
Large intestine
Which of the following is the end product of fat digestion?
Amino acids
Glycerol
Simple sugars
Both a and b
An acute or chronic inflammation of the stomach is called ________.
Colitis
Stomatitis
Gastritis
Gastric ulcer
A ________ is an ulcer occurring in the lower portion of the esophagus, stomach, and duodenum caused the breakdown of the mucosal membrane the acid of gastric juices and pepsin.
Duodenal ulcer
Stomatitis
Gastritis
Peptic ulcer
________ is/are varicose veins of the rectum.
Rectitis
Hemorrhoids
Colostomy
None of the above
A hernia or out-pouching of intestines into the inguinal region of the body is called a(n) ________
Diaphragmatic hernia
Umbilical hernia
Inguinal hernia
Hiatal hernia
________ is inadequate absorption of nutrients from the intestinal tract. It is caused a variety of diseases and disorders of the pancreas and gallbladder.
Cystic fibrosis
Malabsorption syndrome
Pancreatitis
Hepatitis
________ is an infectious or inflammatory process of the peritoneum.
Colitis
Hepatitis
Pancreatitis
Peritonitis
________ are small growths that contain a pedicle or foot-like attachment in the mucous membranes of the large colon.
Diverticulitis
Ulcerative colitis
Polyps
Inflammatory bowel disease

Short Answer

Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question.

The gastrointestinal system takes in, or ____________, raw materials.
The gastrointestinal system breaks down, or ____________, materials.
Another name for the digestive tract is the ____________ (GI) tract.
During swallowing, the _______________ prevents food from entering the nasal cavity.
The action of chewing is known as ____________.
Materials are eliminated from the digestive tract ____________.
The small intestine has projections on the surface of its epithelial cells known as ______________ which increase surface area.
Internally, the teeth are made of ____________.
The ____________ is a flap of tissue that covers the airway to the lungs.
Deciduous teeth are commonly called ____________ teeth, because they fall out.
The rhythmic, muscular contraction of the digestive system is known as ____________.
Partially digested food is known as ____________.
The chief digestive enzyme in the stomach is ____________.
The _____________________ phase of gastric activity begins when you see or smell food.
The peritoneum has drapes of membrane known as ____________________.
The digestive tract begins in the mouth and ends at the ________.
Inflammation of the appendix is called ________.
________ is the muscle action that mixes chyme with digestive juices.
The condition of stones in the gallbladder is ________.
The esophagus does not have a mucus barrier to protect it. Chronic acid ________ causes inflammation and then ulceration, and if left untreated, can progress to esophageal cancer.
A gallstone can lodge in the bile ________, causing extreme pain that may radiate to the right shoulder (an example of referred pain).
Excessive consumption of alcohol can cause ________.
Periodontal disease is the major cause of tooth loss in ________.
When fluids in the small intestine are rushed through the large intestine before the water is adequately re-absorbed, ________ is the result.
Heartburn occurs when the lower esophageal sphincter doesn’t close properly, allowing gastric juices back into the ________.
Stomach ulcers are likely due to defective gastric mucosa or a weak pyloric ________.
Stones can form from substances in the bile while it is stored in the gallbladder. This condition is called ________.
________, also known as dental cavities, is the gradual decay of teeth that can result in inflamed tissue.
The tongue pushes the food into a ball-like mass called a(n) ________ so it can be passed on to the pharynx.
A large ________ salivary gland is found slightly inferior and anterior to each ear. These are the ones that swell up and make you look like a chipmunk when you get the mumps.
The first set of teeth are called ________ (baby) teeth, and they fall out in time.
________ is an acute or chronic inflammation of the stomach due to infection, spicy foods, excess acid production, stress, alcohol, aspirin consumption, or heavy smoking.
The nasopharynx is blocked the soft palate, and a flap of tissue called the ________, a part of the larynx, covers the airway to the lungs as the trachea rises during swallowing.
Dental ________ (cavities) are a result of microorganisms attacking tooth enamel.
________ disease is the major cause of tooth loss in the adult population.
________ is the term for a loss of appetite.
________ is the inflammation of the gallbladder.
________ is the formation of stones or calculi in the gallbladder or common bile duct.
________ is a chronic inflammatory disease of the liver, leading to irreversible scarring and destruction of active liver tissue.
________ disease is a form of chronic inflammatory bowel disease affecting the ileum and/or colon.
________ reflux disease is the erosion of the esophageal lining due to acid reflux, often due to a weakened lower esophageal sphincter.
________ is the inflammation of the gums that may lead to tooth loss.
________ is the discharge of purulent material from dental tissue.

True/False

Write ‘T’ if the statement is true and ‘F’ if the statement is false.

____ 1. ‑The oral cavity is lined with stratified squamous epithelium.

____ 2. Canine teeth are transitional teeth.

____ 3. ‑The hardest biologically manufactured substance is enamel.

____ 4. ‑The oropharynx is lined with respiratory mucosa.

____ 5. ‑The stomach can increase its diameter because of rugae.

____ 6. ‑Directly after leaving the stomach, materials go to the jejunum.

____ 7. ‑Pepsin is one of very few enzymes which are active at very low pH.

____ 8. ‑The final door of the stomach that needs to open for chyme to travel to the small intestine is the fundus.

____ 9. ‑The descending colon is the first part of the large intestine.

____10. ‑The liver stores Vitamins A, B₁₂, K, and C.

____11. The pH of chyme is usually 7.5-8.8.

____12. Cholelithiasis means high cholesterol.

____13. ‑Cirrhosis A, B, C, D, and E are viruses that damage the liver.

____14. Salivary amylase digests proteins.

____15. ‑Gastrin is released when chyme enters the duodenum.

Essay

Write your answer in the space provided or on a separate sheet of paper.

List the organs of the alimentary canal in order from mouth to anus.

____________________________________________

Explain the hormonal control of digestion.

____________________________________________

Define and describe GERD.

____________________________________________

Discuss the function of each of the parts of the alimentary canal.

____________________________________________

Describe the anatomy of the peritoneum. How is peritoneum different from other serous membranes?

____________________________________________

Chapter 17

Multiple Choice

Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.

Without functioning kidneys, fluid and ion ___________ would kill you in a matter of days.
Imbalance
Equilibrium
Reactions
Impurities
The kidneys are covered a layer of connective tissue called the ________.
Renal pelvis
Renal sinus
Renal capsule
Renal hilum
What are the vessels that lead to the glomeruli?
Arcuate arteries
Afferent arterioles
Efferent arterioles
Renal arterioles
Blood leaves the kidney through the ________.
Efferent arterioles
Hepatic vein
Renal nephron
Renal vein
Glomerular filtrate is chemically most similar to ________.
Urine
Plasma
Lymph
Cytoplasm
The first section of the nephron loop glomerular filtrate encounters is the ________.
Ascending loop
Distal tubule
Descending loop
Proximal tubule
What is the most common cause of prolonged vasoconstriction in the kidney?
Increased blood pressure
Decreased blood pressure
Antidiuretic hormone
Diabetes mellitus
What are the three processes necessary for the formation of urine?
Intake, concentration, and output
Chemical, muscular, and neural action
Filtration, reabsorption, and secretion
Arterioles, nephrons, and venules
If blood pressure drops below normal range, what should happen to glomerular filtration rate, to compensate?
It should decrease
It should increase
It should stay the same
It depends on the situation
____________ is the mechanism used to protect the glomerulus from minor changes in blood pressure.
Filtration
Saturation
Autoregulation
Selection
Anything that will affect reabsorption and secretion in the kidney will affect urine ________.
Chemistry
Flow
Accumulation
Filtration
Hormones that regulate blood pressure also affect
Number of nephrons
Permeability of glomerular capsule
Reabsorption and secretion
Ureters and urethra
Which steroid is secreted the adrenal cortex to increase reabsorption of sodium ions?
Antidiuretic hormone
Aldosterone
Adrenalin
Angiotensin
New research has shown that urination is actually controlled the ________.
Kidney
Bladder
Pons
Ureters
Urinary tract infections are often caused ____________ bacteria in the urinary tract.
Symbiotic
Fecal
Abdominal
Intestinal
Bowman’s capsule, the renal membrane that surrounds the glomerulus, is also called the ________.
Renal corpuscle
Glomerular capsule
Renal tubule
Glomerular filtrate
Substances are moved through a filter differences in ________ across the filter.
Pressure
Openings
Tubules
Vessels
Which part of the renal tubular system reabsorbs or secretes the most substances?
Distal Tubule
Collecting duct
Proximal Tubule
Descending loop
Substances that are reabsorbed or secreted in the ascending loop include ________.
Sodium
Potassium
Chloride
All of the above
The patient with diabetes insipidus will have copious amounts of ________ urine.
Toxic
Concentrated
Cloudy
Dilute
One of the most important risk factors for kidney disease is ________.
Hypertension
ACE inhibitors
Hypotension
Vasodilation
Kidney stones can be caused any of the following except ________.
Kidney infection
Calcium
Uric acid
Potassium
The only cure for end-stage renal disease is ________.
Peritoneal dialysis
Lithotripsy
Blood transfusion
Kidney transplant
Ischemia of the kidneys (as well as any other organ) is tissue injury from too little ________ to the tissues.
Hormones
Oxygen
Glucose
Water
Which of the following is not a function of the urinary system?
Removing waste products from the blood
Maintaining the proper electrolyte balance in the blood
Maintaining the proper pH level of the blood
All of the above are functions of the urinary system
Which of the following statements is untrue of the kidneys?
The right kidney is slightly higher than the left kidney.
The kidneys are outside the peritoneal cavity.
The kidneys are surrounded a layer of fat.
The kidneys are affected blood pressure.
The outermost layer of the kidney is called the ________.
Renal pelvis
Renal medulla
Renal cortex
Calyx
The innermost layer of the kidney is called the ________.
Renal pelvis
Renal medulla
Renal cortex
Calyx
Which of the following parts of the kidney is actually an expansion of the upper end of the ureter?
Renal pelvis
Renal medulla
Renal cortex
Calyx
Which of the following is considered the first segment of the renal tubules?
Glomerulus
Proximal convoluted tubule
Distal convoluted tubule
Collecting tubule
Which of the following structures drains into the collecting ducts?
Glomerulus
Proximal convoluted tubule
Distal convoluted tubule
Loop of Henle
Even though this structure is part of the circulatory system, it is included in the discussion of the urinary system ________.
Glomerulus
Proximal convoluted tubule
Renal pelvis
Loop of Henle
The juxtaglomerular apparatus of the kidneys release a hormone ________.
Called antidiuretic hormone
That dilates blood vessels
That causes vasoconstriction
That increases the absorption of chloride from the filtrate
The process which most of the material in the nephron moves back into the blood is called ________.
Filtration
Reabsorption
Secretion
Micturition
This hormone would tend to decrease the amount of urine produced.
Antidiuretic hormone
Aldosterone
Atrial natriuretic hormone
Both a and b
This hormone would tend to increase the amount of urine produced ________.
Antidiuretic hormone
Aldosterone
Atrial natriuretic hormone
Both a and b
The tube that carries urine out of the kidney is called the ________.
Urethra
Collecting tube
Ureter
Bladder
The tube that carries the urine out of the body is called the ________.
Urethra
Collecting tube
Trigone
Ureter
The process which urine is passed out of the body is called ________.
Urination
Voiding
Mastication
Both a & b
Severe pain, hematuria, fever, chills, nausea, and urinary urgency are symptoms of ________.
Kidney stones
Polycystic kidney disease
Ischemic nephropathy
Diabetic nephropathy
Enlarged cystic kidneys, hypertension, UTI, dilute urine, liver cysts, pain, hematuria, and aneurysm are symptoms of ________.
Kidney stones
Polycystic kidney disease
Ischemic nephropathy
Diabetic nephropathy
This condition is caused chronic hyperglycemia ________:
Kidney stones
Polycystic kidney disease
Ischemic nephropathy
Diabetic nephropathy
Copious, dilute urine is a symptom of ________.
Uremia
Renal failure
Diabetes insipidus
Urinary tract infection
Painful urination, urinary frequency, nighttime urination, and foul smelling, cloudy urine are symptoms of ________.
Uremia
Renal failure
Diabetes insipidus
Urinary tract infection
Frequent urination without pain or infection is a symptom of ________.
An overactive bladder
Hemolytic uremic syndrome
Urinary tract infection
Uremia
High blood pressure is a common disease that can affect the kidneys. One way of treating high blood pressure is to decrease blood volume decreasing body water. This can be accomplished using what kind of drug?
Blood thinners
ACE stimulators
Diuretics
Dopamine
Urine leaves the kidneys through the ________.
Urethra
Ureters
Bladder
None of the above
Urine leaves the bladder through the ________.
Urethra
Ureters
Kidneys
None of the above

Short Answer

Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question.

The ____________ carries urine from each kidney to the urinary bladder.
The space inside the kidney is called the renal ____________.
The collecting ducts empty into _________________.
Blood enters the renal corpuscle via the ____________.
There are no __________________ veins in the kidney.
The ________________are striped areas of the renal medulla.
All of the ___________________ in glomerular filtrate is typically reabsorbed and won’t be in urine.
Long term use of non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs causes ____________ nephropathy.
____________ is an endocrine disorder characterized too little anti-diuretic hormone or the insensitivity of the kidney to ADH.
The ____________ is the functional unit of the kidney.
The renin-angiotensin-aldosterone ___________ system is a series of chemical reactions that regulate blood pressure.
____________ means to crush stones.
The ascending nephron loop is permeable only to _________________.
Sympathetic output causes _________________ glomerular filtration.
PKD stands for ____________ disease.
________ moves fluid and chemicals into the nephron.
________ is the movement of molecules from high to low concentrations.
________ is the movement of water across a semipermeable membrane.
Blood flows to the glomerulus via the ________ arteriole.
Blood flows from the glomerulus into the ________ arteriole.
In both glomerulosclerosis and glomerulonephritis, there is decreased waste product removal and the electrolyte ________ is abnormal.
An infection with the bacteria E. Coli , usually from eating undercooked ________, can cause hemolytic uremic syndrome.
Renal failure is also known as ________ disease, kidney disease, or kidney failure.
When blood flow to the nephrons decreases for a period of time, the oxygen being delivered to the nephron also decreases leading to tissue injury. This injury is classified as ________.
Nephropathy is a term for kidney disease especially when there is damage to the nephron’s ________ apparatus.
There is no cure for PKD except kidney ________.
It is not uncommon for trauma patients to ________ a trauma only to sustain organ damage due to ischemia.
The glomerulus is protected from minor changes in blood pressure a mechanism called ________.
________ is a general term for kidney disease particularly damage to the filtering apparatus of the nephrons.
The second factor that affects tubular reabsorption and secretion is a special type of circulation around the nephron loop, called ________ circulation.
________(ADH) is made the hypothalamus and secreted from the posterior pituitary when blood pressure decreases or blood ionic concentration increases.
________ is inflammation of the glomerulus.
________ is a common condition with symptoms of urinary urgency, nighttime urination, and urinary frequency with or without incontinence, but without pain or obvious urinary pathology such as hematuria or UTI.
The indentation that gives the kidney its bean-shaped appearance is called the ________.
Each afferent arteriole leads to a ball of capillaries called a(n) ________.
Renal pyramids are separated narrow ________, which are extensions of the cortical tissue.
Kidney stones are caused increased urine concentration, infection, and kidney disease. They can be made of ________ and uric acid crystals.
________ kidney disease is a genetic disorder that causes large cysts to form in the kidney.
________ nephropathy is caused decreased blood flow to the kidneys.
Diabetic ________ is a type of kidney disease caused diabetes mellitus.
Drug-induced ________ is a type of kidney disease caused drugs toxic to kidney tissue, especially contrast dyes and NSAIDs.
________ is scarring of the glomerulus.
________ is a blood condition that accompanies kidney disease and appears to be due to the accumulation of organic wastes in the blood stream.
________ uremic syndrome is a disorder caused an infection with the bacteria E. Coli , typically from undercooked meat.
Acute renal failure is a rapid decrease in kidney function, as measured blood urea and ________ levels, that develops over minutes or days.
________ renal failure is defined as an ongoing, progressive kidney disease of three months or more.
________ is the inability to control urination.

True/False

Write ‘T’ if the statement is true and ‘F’ if the statement is false.

____ 1. Medulla means inner portion.

____ 2. ‑The functional unit of the kidney is the neuron.

____ 3. ‑More than 40 gallons of blood are filtered every 24 hours.

____ 4. ‑Filtration is controlled changing pressure.

____ 5. ‑A sphincter controls the release of urine.

____ 6. ‑The ureter is the tubing that transports urine from the bladder to the outside of the body.

____ 7. ‑Diabetes mellitus is caused production of too little insulin or insensitivity to insulin.

____ 8. ‑The visceral layer of the glomerular capsule is made of specialized cells called podocytes.

____ 9. ‑The urge to urinate is caused skeletal muscle contraction.

____10. ‑Antidiuretic hormone is secreted the kidneys.

____11. Aldosterone is a steroid.

____12. ‑Water is reabsorbed in the descending loop.

____13. ‑Caffeine promotes the working of antidiuretic hormone.

____14. ‑Atrial natriuretic peptide has the opposite affect of ADH

____15. ‑The urinary bladder serves as a reservoir for urine.

Essay

Write your answer in the space provided or on a separate sheet of paper.

Explain how blood loss affects the kidney.

____________________________________________

List and explain three hormones which can regulate kidney function.

____________________________________________

Describe how filtration is regulated.

____________________________________________

Explain how diabetes mellitus affects the kidneys.

____________________________________________

Describe how kidney stones are caused.

____________________________________________

Chapter 18

Multiple Choice

Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.

Which pair of chromosomes would result in the birth of a male?
XX
XY
YY
XZ
In the human life cycle, the fertilized egg is called a(n) ________.
Zygote
Gonad
Embryo
Fetus
Which of the following is an example of primary genitalia in a female?
Oviducts
Vagina
Ovaries
Testes
The outermost layer of the uterus is called the ________.
Perimetrium
Myometrium
Endometrium
Exometrium
The glands that are responsible for the production of milk are called the ________.
Skenes glands
Mammary glands
Lacteal glands
Myometrial glands
What are the primary genitalia in a male?
Epididymis
Ureter
Seminal vesicles
Testes
Menstruation is the term given to the actual shedding of the ________.
Perimetrium
Myometriun
Endometrium
Exometrium
The release of a mature egg from the ovary is called ________.
Ovulation
Fertilization
Menses
Menopause
How many chromosomes will you find in a successfully fertilized egg?
21 pairs
46 pairs
23 pairs
16 pairs
Of the hormones necessary for menstruation, which one comes from the ovary?
Follicle stimulating hormone
Estrogen
Luteinizing hormone
Testosterone
In utero, the fetus is nourished the ________.
Umbilical cord
Amniotic fluid
Placenta
Amnion
Labor is divided into stages; in which stage will the baactually be delivered?
1st
2nd
3rd
4th
Sperm mature in the ________.
Seminal Vesicles
Epididymis
Testes
Seminiferous tubles
Prior to puberty, testosterone _______________ FSH and LH.
Inhibits
Releases
Has no effect on
Catalyzes
The movement of semen out of the penis is known as ________.
Erection
Arousal
Ejaculation
Semen ejection
Females have all the eggs they will ever have the age of ________.
4 months in utero
8 months
Puberty
13 years
Breast cancer occurs in the ________ glands.
Genital
Mammary
Vulvar
Endocrine
The reproductive cells are called ________.
Ova
Sperm
Gametes
All of the above
This coiled tube is a comma-shaped structure that lies along the top of and behind the testis ________.
Seminiferous tubule
Ductus deferens
Ejaculatory duct
Epididymis
The gonads include ________.
The ova in the female and sperm in the male
The penis in the male and the vulva in the female
The testes in the male and the ovaries in the female
Both a and c are gonads
After ovulation, the ruptured follicle is transformed into the hormone-secreting structure called the ________.
Corpus luteum
Antrum
Graafian follicle
Granulose cells
Which of the following is not a function of estrogen?
Development and maturation of the female reproductive organs
Initiation of the first menstrual cycle
Appearance of pubic hair and breast development
All of the above are functions of estrogen
The smooth muscle layer of the uterus is called the ________.
Endometrium
Fundus
Cervix
Myometrium
The part of the uterus that lies above the point where the uterine tubes attach is called the ________.
Body
Cervix
Fundus
Myometrium
The narrow, lower part of the uterus is called the ________.
Body
Cervix
Fundus
Myometrium
Which of the following is not true of the vagina?
It is part of the female external genitalia.
It receives sperm during intercourse.
It is the last part of the birth canal.
All of the above are true of the vagina.
The phase of the menstrual cycle that directly precedes ovulation is called ________.
The secretory phase
The proliferative phase
Menses
Menarche
Which of the following is the hormone most responsible for stimulating immature ovarian follicles to start growing?
Estrogen
Progesterone
Follicle-stimulating hormone
Luteinizing hormone
Which of the following is the hormone most responsible for ovulation?
Estrogen
Progesterone
Follicle-stimulating hormone
Luteinizing hormone
The absence of normal menstruation is called ________.
Dysmenorrhea
Amenorrhea
Dysfunctional uterine bleeding
Endometriosis
Failure of the testes to descend into the scrotal sac is called ________.
Hydrocele
Cryptorchidism
Prostatitis
None of the above
An abnormal collection of fluid within the testes is called ________.
Hydrocele
Cryptorchidism
Prostatitis
None of the above
This blood test is for prostate cancer ________.
PAP
SAP
PSA
ASP
This type of cancer is the most common non-skin form of cancer that affects American men ________.
Testicular cancer
Breast cancer
Melanoma
Prostate cancer
This disorder increases with age and is relatively common, with 50% of men between the ages of 40 and 70 having some degree of this disorder ________.
Erectile dysfunction
Incontinence
Prostatitis
Melanoma
A baborn before 37 weeks gestation is considered ________.
Full-term
Late
Premature
None of the above
One of the most important procedures to detect breast cancer at an early, more treatable stage is regular ________.
Pap tests
Breast self-examinations
Testicular self-examinations
None of the above
Signs and symptoms of PMS include all of the following except ________.
Constipation
Fatigue
Mental confusion
Feeling of euphoria
Signs and symptoms of breast cancer include which of the following?
Bloody, brown or serous nipple discharge
Noticeable lump
Changes in breast tissue
All of the above
Signs and symptoms of postpartum depression include ________.
Fatigue
Anxiety
Feeling of worthlessness
All of the above
A procedure in which the amniotic sac is punctured and fluid is withdrawn is called a(n) ________.
Amniocentesis
Abdominocentesis
Thoracentesis
None of the above
This syndrome is a genetic disorder that can result in a broad range of malfunctions of the male reproductive system, from complete lack of external or internal male genitalia to patients with ambiguous genitalia to patients who have typical male genitalia but are sterile.
Testosterone deficiency
Androgen insensitivity syndrome
BPH
ED

Short Answer

Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question.

In animals, females produce eggs and males produce ____________.
________________ stimulates ovulation.
After ovulation, estrogen _______________ GnRH secretion.
During the _____________ phase, the endometrium is building up.
Reproductive organs are called ____________.
Another name for oviducts is ____________ tubes.
The ruptured follicle left behind in the ovary during ovulation will become the ____________ and secrete hormones to help maintain the thickened endometrium.
The ____________ gland surrounds the urethra.
____________ is the most important male hormone.
The ____________________ are posterior to the bladder in males.
______________ is a mixture of sperm, sugar, water and electrolytes.
The final stage of labor is the _____________ stage.
The developing embryo secretes the hormone _______________ telling the woman’s body that she is pregnant.
The implantation of endometrial tissue outside of the uterus is called _______________.
The most common cause of male urinary symptoms is _______ (Use the Abbreviation).
Patients with ____________ have an extra copy of chromosome 21.
The female gonads are the ________.
The fertilized egg is known as the ________.
The breasts are also known as ________ glands.
A(n) ________ is an abnormal collection of fluid in the testes.
Down Syndrome patients have a wide range of ________ abilities.
A common blood test called prostate-specific antigen, (PSA) can help detect ________ cancer.
Erectile dysfunction medications such as Viagra and Levitra increase the likelihood of erection increasing ________ accumulation in the erectile tissue.
Women have some natural ________ hormone, and males have some natural estrogen hormone.
The possibility of having a bawith Down Syndrome increases dramatically in females over ________ years of age (Use the numeral).
Prostate cancer is the most common cancer (of non-skin cancers) affecting ________ in this country.
When menstrual disorders lessen a woman’s quality of life, they may be diagnosed with ________.
Treatment of erectile dysfunction depends on the ________ cause.
Vaginitis is the inflammation of the vagina, usually caused microorganisms such as bacteria or ________.
There is a testes-blood barrier to prevent the ________ system from destroying sperm, which the white blood cells would recognize as invaders.
________ is the expulsion of semen (sperm and assorted chemicals) from the urethra.
Following birth, the bais often fed with breast milk. One of the complications is ________ which is an inflammation of the breast.
When cells make identical copies of themselves without the involvement of another cell, the process is called ________.
The external female genitalia are known as the ________.
The uterine tubes, which are about 4 inches long and not attached to the ovaries, begin as a large funnel, the infundibulum, surrounded ciliated projections, the ________.
The process of sorting the chromosomes so that each new cell gets the right number of copies of all of the genetic material is called ________.
The ________ layer of the uterus sheds about every 28 days when a woman has her period.
________ is the continued proliferation, decay and bleeding of endometrial tissue in the abdominal and pelvic cavities that can cause scarring and damage to the organs.
The ________ is the area between the vagina and the rectum.
The ________ glands are milk production glands housed in the breasts.
________ is the absence of menstruation.
________ is painful menstruation.
The exact cause of PMS is not determined but may be due to irregular levels of estrogen or ___________
Signs and symptoms of ________ include hematuria, dysuria, painful intercourse, and excessive menstrual bleeding.
________ cancer is the most common malignancy among women and the leading cause of death between ages 40–55.
________ cancer may have a genetic predisposition, and current research shows a connection with the HPV and early and frequent sexual activity.
________ is an inflammation of the vagina caused infection, irritation, or menopause.
________ is a condition in which the placenta separates from the uterus.
________ pregnancy is also known as a tubal pregnancy.
Benign prostatic hyperplasia or________ is the non-cancerous enlargement of the prostate and is the most common cause of lower urinary tract symptoms in men.

True/False

Write ‘T’ if the statement is true and ‘F’ if the statement is false.

____ 1. ‑Just before ovulation, estrogen levels drop.

____ 2. ‑Normally, an adult human has 23 chromosomes.

____ 3. GnRH is released the pituitary gland.

____ 4. ‑The union of genetic material is called fertilization.

____ 5. ‑The external genitalia of the female are known as the uvula.

____ 6. HCG is secreted the ovary.

____ 7. ‑The functional layer of endometrium is shed when a woman has her period.

____ 8. ‑The prepuce is a small erectile structure in women.

____ 9. The epididymis is superior to the testis.

____10. ‑LH and FSH stimulate sperm production and maturation.

____11. ‑Erection is caused muscle contraction in the penis.

____12. ‑The spermatic cord consists of the seminal vesicles and seminiferous tubules.

____13. ‑The testes are outside of the abdominopelvic cavity.

____14. ‑The female reproductive system is hospitable to sperm.

____15. ‑An egg may be fertilized more than one sperm.

Essay

Write your answer in the space provided or on a separate sheet of paper.

Trace the path of a sperm during ejaculation.

____________________________________________

Discuss endometriosis.

____________________________________________

List and briefly explain the function of hormones controlling female reproduction.

____________________________________________

Explain the role of testosterone in male reproduction.

____________________________________________

List the phases of the female reproductive cycle and briefly define them.

____________________________________________

Chapter 19

Multiple Choice

Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.

Forensic science is the application of science to ________.
Medicine
Biology
Crime
History
What part of long bones contain high levels of oxygen?
Medulla
Ends
Shaft
Marrow
What common food reacts with pewter and was once thought to be poisonous?
Tomatoes
Apples
Figs
Bananas
The male and female skeleton differ in what manner?
Females have a wider pelvis
Males have a wider pelvis
Females have fewer rib bones
Males have more rib bones
A timeline containing substances someone ingests, or becomes exposed to, can be found in the ________.
Hair
Bones
Teeth
Eyes
Fingerprints were first suggested to be an aid in solving various crimes in ________.
1910
1782
1604
1880
DNA fingerprinting is performed in which manner?
Blotting digits on paper
Splitting DNA molecules
Dusting the scene with powder
Dusting cells for very small prints
Patients between the ages of 76 and 84 are classified as ________.
Elite old
Younger old
Older old
Beginning old
The hallmark sign of aging is the body’s decreased ability to ________.
Adapt to stressors
Maintain homeostasis
Maintain hair color
Maintain skin elasticity
What is a common food that may taste metallic to the geriatric patient?
Tomato juice
Orange juice
Apple juice
Grape juice
What are some of the potential behavior changes related to pain?
Euphoria
Increased mobility
Increased energy
Agitation and confusion
A healthy human brain will continue to develop until the approximate age of ________.
50
60
25
35
A decrease in the function of the ____________ can lead to accumulation of medication in the geriatric patient.
Kidneys
Heart
Lungs
Vessels
Seeing multiple doctors at the same time can lead to ________.
Loss of insurance
Carcinoma
Polypharmacy
Increased agitation
Carpal tunnel syndrome is a result of damage to the ____________ nerve.
Carpal
Lateral
Median
Radial
Disease processes, along with aging, will ________ the loss of body reserves affecting recovery after surgery.
Accelerate
Decrease
Slow
Diminish
The elderly are increasingly more difficult to medically evaluate due to the three major changes in the patients. Which of the following is not one of them?
Worsening vision
Decreased hearing
Increased memory
Possible mental abilities
Which lifestyle choice adversely affects the cardiovascular system, as well as other systems?
Illegal drug use
Smoking
Drinking alcohol
All of the above
The best way to protect yourself and others from spreading or getting infections is to ________.
Wear gloves for every patient encounter
Wash hands before and after each patient
Take large doses of vitamin C
Wear a lab coat over your clothes or uniform when with patients
If a fetus does not get enough calcium in the mother’s diet, the fetus ________.
Gets it from converting other nutrients
Breaks down his/her own bones that had developed so far
Does not get enough calcium and may not develop properly because of the lack
Gets it from the mother’s bones and teeth, weakening them
Which of these is not a common behavioral change due to pain?
Being grumpy
Swearing
Having a loss of appetite
Increased social interaction
Smoking mothers have a tendency toward ________.
Babies of lower birth weights
Premature births
A higher rate of SIDS
All of the above
For several hundred years it was believed that ________ were poisonous.
Grapes
Poppy seeds
Tomatoes
Watermelons
A skull fragment found in a 400-year-old trash dump at this settlement provided evidence that skull surgery had been performed on a patient ________.
Mexico City, Mexico
Cairo, Egypt
Beijing, China
Jamestown, Virginia
Currently, the geriatric patient group called the older old are identified as ________.
Age 55 to 64
Age 65 to 75
Age 76 to 84
Age 85 and older
________ can reveal the race of an individual.
Hair
Eyes
Digestive organs
Clothing
Bone density usually reaches its greatest peak around age ________.
35
45
55
65
Interest in fingerprints has been around for a long period of time. Their uniqueness was discovered in the ________.
1200s
1500s
1600s
1800s
A technique called video skull–face superimposition was used to identify ________.
Josef Mengele
Tutankhamen, “King Tut”
Both a and b
None of the above
An older patient may lose up to ________ neurons a day.
100
1,000
10,000
100,000
Proof that the ancient Egyptians were stricken with ________ was discovered examining their skeletons.
Tuberculosis
Anthrax
Cancer
Parkinson’s disease
Often, geriatric patients are undermedicated for ________.
Pain
Hypertension
Diabetes
Osteoporosis
One common occupational condition related to repetitive motion, such as typing on a keyboard, playing a piano, or hammering, is known as ________.
Lock jaw
Carpal tunnel syndrome
Incontinence
Osteoporosis
DNA fingerprinting techniques have been used to identify ________.
Victims of the World Trade Center
Thomas Jefferson’s children
Josef Mengele
All of the above
As an individual ages, he or she may lose which of the following?
Muscle mass
Neurons
Bone density
All of the above
The number of taste buds decreases about ________ percent as the body ages.
20
50
30
40
Which of the following is a barrier to proper nutrition?
Tooth loss
Difficulty swallowing
Decreased saliva
All of the above
Which of the following can be a trigger to make a cell cancerous?
Genes
Radiation
Sunlight exposure
All of the above
Between the ages of 20 and 80, we lose about ________ percent of our renal function.
25
50
40
30
The aging process affects the integumentary system in all of the following ways except ______.
Increased skin elasticity
Increased skin delicacy
Multiple skin lesions
Increases in skin cancer
Aging can affect the rates of drug ________.
Absorption
Metabolism
Excretion
All of the above
Approximately ________ percent of all lung cancers can be traced to smoking.
60
70
80
90
Which of the following vitamins is needed for proper night vision and helps to resist infections?
Vitamin A
Vitamin B
Vitamin C
Vitamin D
Which of the following vitamins is needed to promote strong bones and teeth?
Vitamin A
Vitamin B
Vitamin C
Vitamin D
Which of the following vitamins is needed to promote healthy muscular growth?
Vitamin A
Vitamin B
Vitamin C
Vitamin D
Which of the following vitamins is needed to aid in absorption of iron?
Vitamin A
Vitamin B
Vitamin C
Vitamin D
Which of the following vitamins is needed for proper blood clotting?
Vitamin K
Vitamin C
Vitamin E
Vitamin D
Which of the following vitamins is needed to promote muscle growth, and may reduce the risk of Parkinson’s disease?
Vitamin K
Vitamin C
Vitamin E
Vitamin D

Short Answer

Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question.

Tuberculosis is detectable in the lungs, brain, kidneys, and the ends of long ____________.
The female pelvis, in general, has a pubic angle of ____________ degrees or greater (Use the numeral).
Since hair grows relatively slowly, it can contain a(n) ____________ of substances that an individual ingested or was exposed to.
Forensic scientists can use the molecule found in the nucleus of our cells, ____________, to identify individuals.
The use of multiple medications the elderly is known as ____________.
Integumentary problems can be reduced not ____________ and limiting exposure to the ____________.
There is a(n) ____________% decrease in the function of most body systems each year, beginning around the age of thirty (Use the numeral).
In the absence of disease, the brain continues to mature up to the age of ____________ (Use the numeral).
Repetitive motion can lead to a condition called ____________.
Approximately 80% of all lung cancers can be traced to ____________.
____________ is the most deadly form of skin cancer.
Vitamin ____________ is needed for proper blood clotting.
The human papilloma virus causes genital ____________.
The metal ____________ has been detected in the bones of medieval skeletons and can be traced to eating from pewter plates.
Whether skeletal remains are of a man or a woman can be determined examining the ____________.
The hallmark sign of aging is the decreasing ability to maintain ________.
A drug taken a patient with impaired renal function, such as an elderly person, may not be metabolized correctly the kidneys. This may cause a(n) ________ of the drug.
Carpal tunnel syndrome is a common occupational condition that is related to ________ movements.
Analgesics are stronger and last ________ in the elderly patients.
The lung’s initial response to an inhaled irritant is to ________ or restrict the airway and minimize the inhalation of more irritant, even though this makes breathing difficult.
Aging affects the rates of a drug’s absorption, its distribution through the body, the metabolism of the medication, and the ________ of the drug from the body.
Many triggers can make a cell cancerous, such as exposure to sunlight, radiation, and ________.
Cancer treatment often involves ________ as much of the cancer as possible, and then following up with radiation and/or chemotherapy to kill any cancer or cancer cells remaining in the body.
________ is the treatment of cancer with chemicals that kill rapidly dividing cells.
________ cause(s) cauliflower-like growths on the penis and vagina.
________, the administration of many drugs at the same time, is a major concern for the elderly.
Many types of cancer can be prevented or managed with a healthy diet and ________.
The congenital condition of ________ can be prevented a dietary supplement of a member of the vitamin B complex, folic acid.
Fingerprints are actual ________ that form a pattern on the anterior surface of the hands and also on the plantar surface of the feet.
The ________ pelvis is more funnel shaped and is heavier and stronger, with a pubic angle of 90 degrees or less.
Bone scouring is the destruction of the smooth bone surface as a result of colonization the tuberculosis ________.
During the aging process, there is a decrease in the total body water for both males and females. The clinical significance of this is that older patients have a tendency to ________ more rapidly.
The senses of taste and smell ________ as a natural process of aging.
Within the cardiovascular system, the aging process causes such changes as ________ of heart valves, which decreases their efficiency.
Within the cardiovascular system, we also see a lessening in the ________ of blood vessels, which leads to increased blood pressures.
There is an increase of ________, which is the loss of bladder control, in the elderly population.
________ is the administration of many drugs at the same time.
Smoking affects the heart reducing the availability of ________ to the heart muscle.
Smoking with alcohol consumption leads to a(n) ________ in stomach and mouth cancers.
________ steroids are used to increase strength and endurance rapidly and to build muscle mass.
Smoking mothers tend to have babies of ________ birth weights, a tendency toward premature births, and a higher rate of sudden infant death syndrome (SIDS).
The sexually transmitted disease ________ has symptoms of fluid-filled vesicles on the penis and blisters in and around the vagina.
The sexually transmitted disease ________ has symptoms of purulent discharge from the urethra, dysuria, and urinary frequency in males; and purulent vaginal discharge, abnormal menstrual bleeding, and possible sterility in females.
The sexually transmitted disease ________ can be asymptomatic.
The sexually transmitted disease ________ is a systemic disease that can lead to lesions, lymph node enlargement, nervous system degradation, and chancre sores.
This sexually transmitted disease ________ creates cauliflower-like growths on the penis and vagina.

True/False

Write ‘T’ if the statement is true and ‘F’ if the statement is false.

____ 1. ‑Forensic science is the application of science to law.

____ 2. ‑The infamous Nazi Mengele has never been found.

____ 3. ‑Forensic DNA evidence is the only way to identify the sex of the victim.

____ 4. ‑The race of the individual can be determined examining their hair.

____ 5. ‑In children is it nearly impossible to tell the sex of a skeleton.

____ 6. ‑The most common cause of respiratory illness is genetic disorders.

____ 7. ‑Identical twins will have the same fingerprints.

____ 8. ‑Forensic science has conclusively proved that Thomas Jefferson did not father children with his slave, Sally Hemmings.

____ 9. ‑From ages 20 to 70 we see a loss of lean body mass due to up to 30% loss in the number of muscle cells, atrophy of muscle cells, and a general decrease in muscle strength.

____10. ‑As we age, our gustatory senses become stronger to compensate for hearing and vision loss.

____11. ‑Often geriatric patients are under-medicated for pain.

____12. ‑A diet rich in sodium and vitamins helps to maintain good bone growth and development.

____13. It is important to stay well-hydrated.

____14. ‑Due to its sterile nature, urine can be used to clean a wound.

____15. ‑Spina bifida can be prevented adequate ascorbic acid ingestion during pregnancy.

Essay

Write your answer in the space provided or on a separate sheet of paper.

Discuss how forensic scientists solve mysteries.

____________________________________________

Discuss how vitamin deficiencies affect health.

____________________________________________

Explain how DNA is used to solve crimes or identify remains.

____________________________________________

List five symptoms of sexually transmitted diseases.

____________________________________________

List five behavioral choices to improve health.

____________________________________________

Test Bank

Anatomy and Physiology for Health Professions 2nd Edition Colbert Ankney Lee Test Bank

Anatomy and Physiology for Health Professions 2nd Edition Colbert Ankney Lee Test Bank

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Anatomy and Physiology for Health Professions 2nd Edition Colbert Ankney Lee Test Bank

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