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Anatomy and Physiology for Health Professions 2nd Edition Colbert Ankney Lee Test Bank

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Anatomy and Physiology for Health Professions 2nd Edition Colbert Ankney Lee Test Bank

ISBN-13: 978-0135060773

ISBN-10: 013506077X

Description

Anatomy and Physiology for Health Professions 2nd Edition Colbert Ankney Lee Test Bank

ISBN-13: 978-0135060773

ISBN-10: 013506077X

 

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Test Bank

Chapter 1

Multiple Choice

Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question ________.

  1. Gross Anatomy is also known as
  2. Microscopic Anatomy
  3. Pathologic Anatomy
  4. Macroscopic Anatomy
  5. Diagnostic Anatomy
  6. An example of Gross Anatomy would be ________.
  7. Viewing an x-ray
  8. Using a microscope
  9. Performing a complete cellular blood count
  10. Determining the etiology of a disease
  11. The study of Physiology deals with ________.
  12. Disease
  13. Genetics
  14. Structures
  15. Functions
  16. The potential outcome of a disease is the ________.
  17. Etiology
  18. Diagnosis
  19. Prognosis
  20. Treatment
  21. The study of disease is known as ________.
  22. Neurology
  23. Pathophysiology
  24. Microbiology
  25. Cytology
  26. The three basic parts of a medical term include ________.
  27. Prefix, word root, suffix
  28. Suffix, base, meaning
  29. Prefix, stem, ending
  30. Base, word root, stem
  31. What system is known as the mathematical language of Anatomy and Physiology?
  32. Abbreviation system
  33. Metric system
  34. English system
  35. Customary system
  36. Which of the following is not a vital sign?
  37. Heart Rate
  38. Temperature
  39. Pain
  40. Respiratory rate
  41. When the physician has documented several signs and symptoms, he will be able to make a(n) ________.
  42. Prognosis
  43. Etiology
  44. Cytology
  45. Diagnosis
  46. A recording of the electrical activity of a skeletal muscle is a(n) ________.
  47. electrocardiogram
  48. electromyogram
  49. mamogram
  50. mammogram
  51. The adjustments that maintain a stable environment within the body are known as ________.
  52. Homeostasis
  53. Metabolism
  54. Syndrome
  55. Pathology
  56. Taking an MRI of the knee is considered gross anatomy because it is ________.
  57. Difficult
  58. Visually unpleasant
  59. Has 144 steps
  60. Is large scale
  61. The body uses feedback loops to maintain homeostasis. The response that opposes an action is known as a(n) ________.
  62. Depressing feedback loop
  63. Negative feedback loop
  64. Positive feedback loop
  65. Affirmative feedback loop
  66. Positive feedback is necessary in which of the following situations?
  67. Blood pressure
  68. Coughing
  69. Bleeding
  70. Childbirth
  71. Vital signs include all of the following except ________.
  72. Coloring
  73. Heart rate
  74. Respirations
  75. Temperature
  76. RBC is the abbreviation for ________.
  77. Really bad cut
  78. Red and blue circulation
  79. Red blood cells
  80. Ruptured blood clot
  81. The indicators that are essential for human life include all of the following except ________.
  82. Coloring
  83. Heart rate
  84. Respirations
  85. Temperature
  86. Which is not a definition for disease?
  87. Not at ease
  88. A condition in which the body fails to function normally
  89. Anything that is a normal structure or function
  90. Anything that upsets normal structure or function
  91. The term tachycardia means ________.
  92. Fast heart rate
  93. Slow heart rate
  94. Rhythmic heart rate
  95. Study of the heart rate
  96. Which is not a symptom of metabolic syndrome?
  97. High triglycerides
  98. Low HDL level
  99. High blood pressure
  100. Vomiting and diarrhea
  101. A sign that could be an indication of diabetes is breath that smells like ________.
  102. Fruity flavored chewing gum
  103. Clay or starchy paste
  104. Sweat
  105. Maple
  106. The prefix hyper means ________.
  107. Small
  108. Above normal
  109. Below normal
  110. Within
  111. The suffix oma means ________.
  112. Cutting into
  113. Enlargement of
  114. Surgically forming an opening
  115. Tumor
  116. The suffix algia means ________.
  117. Inflammation
  118. Cell
  119. Pertaining to
  120. Pain
  121. The abbreviation for a stroke is ________ and the letters stand for ________.
  122. CPR, cardiopulmonary resuscitation
  123. CAD, coronary artery disease
  124. CVA, cerebrovascular accident
  125. CVA, cardiovascular accident
  126. Most fevers are the body’s way of ________.
  127. Killing all pathogens
  128. Breaking up the cells of the pathogens
  129. Making an inhospitable environment for pathogens to survive
  130. Preventing pathogens from reproducing
  131. Sweating at night may indicate ________.
  132. Tuberculosis
  133. Hodgkin’s disease
  134. Riboflavin deficiency
  135. Skin cancer
  136. According to the rules of medical terminology, hepatitis is defined as ________.
  137. Liver failure
  138. Inflammation of the liver
  139. Cirrhosis
  140. Blood clotting
  141. The abbreviation used for twice a day is ________.
  142. TAD
  143. TID
  144. p.r.n
  145. BID
  146. Volumes expressed as ounces, pints, quarts, gallons, pecks, bushels, or cubic feet are examples of the ________.
  147. Metric system
  148. English system
  149. Scientific notation
  150. International system
  151. The diagnostic procedure is begun by first determining the ________.
  152. Prognosis
  153. Syndrome
  154. Chief complaint
  155. Laboratory tests
  156. ________ is the branch of medicine that studies the characteristics, causes, and effects of disease.
  157. Anatomy
  158. Physiology
  159. Pathology
  160. Ornithology
  161. The term osteoma can be defined as ________.
  162. Cutting of the skin
  163. Tumor of the bone
  164. Tumor of the eye
  165. Cutting into the eye
  166. The normal heart rate for an adult is ________ beats per minute.
  167. 10–30
  168. 70–120
  169. 90–170
  170. 60–100
  171. The ________ is the prediction of the outcome of a disease.
  172. Prognosis
  173. Diagnosis
  174. Acute determination
  175. Syndrome
  176. Disease-producing microorganisms that invade the body are known as ________.
  177. Neogenic
  178. Aerobic
  179. Cytophrenic
  180. Pathogenic
  181. A condition in which the body fails to function normally is ________.
  182. Disease
  183. Physiology
  184. Nosocomial
  185. Epidemiology
  186. The cause of a disease is called its ________.
  187. Disease
  188. Pathology
  189. Nosocomial
  190. Etiology
  191. A specific group of signs and symptoms that are related to a specific disease is known by which of the following names?
  192. Diagnosis
  193. Chief complaint
  194. Syndrome
  195. Relapse
  196. A patient with Syndrome X can exhibit which of the following common conditions?
  197. High blood sugar levels, low blood pressure, high blood level of HDL
  198. High blood sugar levels, high blood pressure, high triglycerides
  199. Low blood sugar levels, low blood pressure, high triglycerides
  200. Low blood sugar levels, high blood pressure, low blood level of HDL
  201. A patient who has metabolic syndrome is at an increased risk for all of the following except ________.
  202. Diabetes
  203. Heart attack
  204. Horner’s Syndrome
  205. Stroke
  206. ________ is the physiological process that monitors and maintains a stable internal environment or equilibrium.
  207. Homeostasis
  208. Negative feedback loop
  209. Positive feedback loop
  210. Metabolism
  211. ________ is a mechanism in our body that continually senses the internal and external environment and the body makes adjustments to maintain homeostasis.
  212. Homeostasis
  213. Negative feedback loop
  214. Positive feedback loop
  215. Metabolism
  216. ________ is known as a “vicious cycle.” In most cases, this is harmful if the vicious cycle cannot be broken; sometimes it is necessary for a process to run to completion.
  217. Homeostasis
  218. Negative feedback loop
  219. Positive feedback loop
  220. Metabolism
  221. Which of the following are examples of a sign?
  222. Temperature
  223. Pulse
  224. Pain
  225. a and b
  226. All of the following are symptoms except ________.
  227. Pain
  228. Respiratory rate
  229. Dizziness
  230. Itchiness

Short Answer

Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question.

  1. ____________ or macro anatomy represents the study of the structures visible to the unaided or naked eye.
  2. The study of cellular structure is called ____________.
  3. ____________ is the study of structure.
  4. ____________ is the study of how structures work.
  5. The study of disease is called pathology or ____________.
  6. The word root in pericarditis is ____________.
  7. A record of the breast is a(n) ____________.
  8. ____________ are the combining forms for nose.
  9. The process of recording the electrical activity of the heart is a(an) ____________ (Do not use abbreviation).
  10. ____________ means “fear of.”
  11. Forming a surgical opening in the colon is called ____________.
  12. One who studies nerves is a(n) ____________.
  13. A group of signs and symptoms is known as a(n) ____________.
  14. If blood sugar falls, the body uses negative feedback to ____________ blood sugar.
  15. The ideal normal value of a variable is known as the _______________.
  16. Breath that smells fruity may be an indication of ________ mellitus.
  17. Spoon-shaped finger nail beds may indicate a(n) ________ deficiency in the body.
  18. If a patient has had a “nose job” you would say in medical terms that they had a(n) ________, which means surgical repair of the nose.
  19. The combining form for ________ is gastro and adding the suffix itis (which means inflammation) makes the medical term gastritis.
  20. Changes in objective measurable values such as temperature (________) and subjective patient perceptions (symptoms) can indicate disease is present.
  21. The suffix tomy means ________ into.
  22. The prefix ________ indicates “above normal.”
  23. The cycle of ever-increasing uterine contractions due to an ever-increasing release of oxytocin is an example of ________.
  24. The word ________ is constructed using the definition “one who studies cells.”
  25. The area of biology that focuses on the function and vital processes of the various structures making up the human body is ________.
  26. The ________ is the prediction of the outcome of a disease.
  27. Syndrome X is essentially a syndrome that is created as a result of poor diet and lack of ________.
  28. Another name for Syndrome X is the ___________ syndrome.
  29. The artery found near the elbow is called the _________ artery.
  30. The average ________ body temperature in centigrade is thirty seven degrees.
  31. The body temperature is controlled by the _______________.
  32. The abbreviation for immediately is ________.
  33. The abbreviation for nothing by mouth is _____________
  34. The abbreviation for the technique to be performed on a pulseless and non-breathing patient is ______.
  35. ACLS stands for __________
  36. The study of tissue samples is known as ________.

True/False

Write ‘T’ if the statement is true and ‘F’ if the statement is false.

____ 1.    Anatomy in Greek means to cut apart.

____ 2.    ‑Anatomy focuses on the function and vital processes of the human body.

____ 3.    Macro means small.

____ 4.    ‑A bacterial infection is the prognosis for a Staph infection.

____ 5.    ‑Negative feedback is bad for the body because it increases a change away from normal.

____ 6.    Tachycardia means a slow heart rate.

____ 7.    Glyc/o is the combining form for sugar.

____ 8.    Leuk/o is the combining form for cell.

____ 9.    Hyp/o means above normal.

____10.   ‑An appendectomy means the surgical removal of the appendix.

____11.   Stat means right away or immediately.

____12.   A telescope views small objects.

____13.   ‑Cutting into a vein is called phlebotomy.

____14.   ‑Disease is a condition in which the body fails to function normally.

____15.   Pain is a vital sign.

Essay

Write your answer in the space provided or on a separate sheet of paper.

  1. Discuss how using abbreviations can either help or hinder communication among health care professionals.

____________________________________________

____________________________________________

____________________________________________

____________________________________________

  1. Discuss how behaviors and environmental factors can contribute to disease.

____________________________________________

____________________________________________

____________________________________________

____________________________________________

  1. Define homeostasis. How is a control center important in maintaining homeostasis?

____________________________________________

____________________________________________

____________________________________________

____________________________________________

  1. What are “vital signs” and why are they called “vital?”

____________________________________________

____________________________________________

____________________________________________

____________________________________________

  1. Discuss positive and negative feedback loops.

____________________________________________

____________________________________________

____________________________________________

____________________________________________

Chapter 2

Multiple Choice

Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.

  1. Knowing the exact body region of a sign or symptom can help a health care worker determine the
  2. Proper diagnosis
  3. Patient’s size
  4. Extent of injury
  5. Proper medication
  6. A body in the prone position is
  7. Face up
  8. On left side
  9. On right side
  10. Face down
  11. A plane is an imaginary line dividing the body into
  12. Squares
  13. Sections
  14. Organs
  15. Tissues
  16. Directional terms are used as ____________ within the body.
  17. Vertical points
  18. Horizontal points
  19. Lateral points
  20. Reference points
  21. The midsagittal plane divides the body into which parts?
  22. Superior and inferior
  23. Internal and external
  24. Right and left
  25. Anterior and posterior
  26. If –emia means ”blood” then this term means high blood glucose.
  27. hyperglycemia
  28. hypercholesterolemia
  29. hyperlipidemia
  30. hyperbacteremia
  31. What directional term would you use to indicate the ankle if the knee is your point of reference?
  32. External
  33. Distal
  34. Internal
  35. Proximal
  36. A young girl falls while riding her bicycle. Initially she seems fine, but later she is complaining of severe tibial pain. Where is her pain?
  37. Her foot
  38. Her lower leg
  39. Her knee
  40. Her thigh
  41. The heart and lungs are located in the ____________ cavity.
  42. Posterior
  43. Abdominal
  44. Pelvic
  45. Thoracic
  46. Dorsal cavities contain which organs?
  47. Diaphragm
  48. Brain and spinal cord
  49. Stomach
  50. Pancreas
  51. The hypochondrial region is located beneath the __________?
  52. Ribs
  53. Heart
  54. Stomach
  55. Liver
  56. A woman involved in a high speed car accident initially seems fine, but soon develops difficulty breathing. You suspect she is bleeding into one of her body cavities. Given her symptoms, which one?
  57. Cranial
  58. Spinal
  59. Thoracic
  60. Abdominal
  61. The space within the mouth is known as the ____________ cavity
  62. Nasal
  63. Orbital
  64. Cranial
  65. Oral
  66. The belly button is located in which region?
  67. Epigastric
  68. Umbilical
  69. Iliac
  70. Hypogastric
  71. Pain in the ____________ quadrant can be a sign of appendicitis.
  72. RUQ
  73. LUQ
  74. RLQ
  75. LLQ
  76. Which test gives the greatest detail of tissue structures?
  77. MRI
  78. EKG
  79. Blood test
  80. X-ray
  81. Cyanosis is a condition that is usually a result of low levels of ________ within the body.
  82. Blood
  83. Oxygen
  84. Saline
  85. Calcium
  86. The cervical spine contains how many vertebrae?
  87. 12
  88. 7
  89. 5
  90. 3
  91. By placing your fingers at the T5 vertebra, you can locate which organ?
  92. Spleen
  93. Kidney
  94. Lung
  95. Brain
  96. The type of scan that provides a series of cross-sectional slices of the body is ________.
  97. MRI
  98. Ultrasound
  99. CT scan
  100. Sonography
  101. Blood is most commonly drawn from ________.
  102. Deep veins
  103. Central veins
  104. Superficial veins
  105. Deep arteries
  106. Jugular venous distention is visible in the ________ area.
  107. Neck
  108. Chest
  109. Brain
  110. Lungs
  111. The Fowlers’ position facilitates ________.
  112. Sleeping
  113. All treatments
  114. Dizziness
  115. Breathing
  116. An injury to the abdominopelvic cavity could include injury to ________.
  117. The brain
  118. The heart
  119. Spleen
  120. The sternum
  121. A patient with peripheral cyanosis needs ___.
  122. Oxygen
  123. White blood cells
  124. Insulin
  125. Potassium
  126. The danger of a hernia is ________.
  127. Internal bleeding
  128. Blood flow is restricted to the portion of the organ protruding
  129. When an umbilical hernia becomes an inguinal hernia
  130. When the muscle protrudes through an organ
  131. The supine position ________.
  132. Describes the body lying face upward
  133. Is also called the anatomical position
  134. Describes the body lying face downward
  135. Both a and b
  136. Because humans stand and move upright, the term dorsal can be used in place of the term ________.
  137. Inferior
  138. Posterior
  139. Anterior
  140. Distal
  141. A ________ section would divide the eyes from the back of the head.
  142. Sagittal
  143. Frontal
  144. Transverse
  145. Midsagittal
  146. ________ devices use a narrowly focused X-ray beam that circles rapidly around the body.
  147. Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)
  148. X-ray
  149. Ultrasound
  150. Computed tomography (CT) scanning
  151. The prone position ________.
  152. Describes the body lying face upward
  153. Is also called the anatomical position
  154. Describes the body lying face downward
  155. Both b and c
  156. The ________ contains the heart, lungs, and large blood vessels.
  157. Thoracic cavity
  158. Abdominopelvic cavity
  159. Cranial cavity
  160. Spinal cavity
  161. The skin is ________ to the bones.
  162. Superficial
  163. Medial
  164. Inferior
  165. Deep
  166. The opposite of superficial is ________.
  167. Deep
  168. Inferior
  169. Posterior
  170. Medial
  171. A section that would divide the body into mirror images would be ________.
  172. A frontal section
  173. A cross section
  174. A midsagittal section
  175. A transverse section
  176. The liver can be found ________.
  177. In the right upper quadrant (RUQ)
  178. In the epigastric region
  179. In the hypogastric region
  180. Both a and b
  181. The ankle is a ________ structure.
  182. Central
  183. Peripheral
  184. Thoracic
  185. Superior
  186. If you like to sleep on your stomach, you prefer sleeping in the ________ position.
  187. Supine
  188. Prone
  189. Orthoptic
  190. Abdominal
  191. The ________ vertebrae are located in the neck.
  192. Sacral
  193. Thoracic
  194. Cervical
  195. Cranial
  196. The lungs are ________ to the heart.
  197. Medial
  198. Lateral
  199. Superficial
  200. Infraorbital
  201. A plane dividing a body into upper and lower portions is a ________ plane.
  202. Sagittal
  203. Coronal
  204. Midsagittal
  205. Transverse
  206. Trendelenburg position may be contraindicated in patients with ________.
  207. Cerebral injury
  208. Hypertension
  209. Skin disease
  210. None of the above
  211. Cyanosis causes what coloration of the skin?
  212. Red
  213. Blue
  214. Black
  215. White
  216. Cyanosis is usually the result of low levels of ________ in the blood.
  217. Carbon dioxide
  218. Nitrogen
  219. Oxygen
  220. Carbon monoxide
  221. Which of the following is much more serious than the other conditions?
  222. Acrocyanosis
  223. Central cyanosis
  224. Peripheral cyanosis
  225. None of the above
  226. The most common type of radiologic diagnostic modality is the ________.
  227. X-ray
  228. CT scan
  229. MRI
  230. Ultrasound
  231. The thoracic and abdominopelvic cavities are separated by the ________.
  232. Ribs
  233. Spinal cord
  234. Diaphragm
  235. Sternum
  236. The large, dome-shaped muscle called the diaphragm is used for ________.
  237. Circulation
  238. Digestion
  239. Reproduction
  240. Breathing
  241. A patient is complaining of pain and the doctor suspects appendicitis. In which quadrant is the pain located?
  242. RUQ
  243. RLQ
  244. LUQ
  245. LLQ
  246. Your patient complains of pain in the area of the liver. In which quadrant is the pain located?
  247. LUQ
  248. LLQ
  249. RUQ
  250. RLQ
  251. The doctor has ordered a study to look at the action of heart valves. Which procedure has he ordered?
  252. X-ray
  253. CT Scan
  254. MRI
  255. Ultrasound
  256. A patient is scheduled to undergo a test and has stated that she has had surgery for a valve replacement. Which procedure could be contraindicated in this situation?
  257. X-ray
  258. CT Scan
  259. MRI
  260. Ultrasound

Short Answer

Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question.

  1. The ____________ position is lying with the head lower than the feet.
  2. The ____________ position is with the bed or examination table elevated 45-60 degrees.
  3. The transverse (horizontal) plane divides the body into superior and ____________ areas.
  4. ____________ refers to body parts located away from the midline.
  5. The frontal or____________ plane divides the body into anterior and posterior sections.
  6. Posterior or ____________ means towards the back of the body.
  7. ____________ refers to body parts close to a point of reference on the body.
  8. ____________ means on the outside.
  9. The word meaning at or towards the body surface is ____________.
  10. The opposite of dorsal is anterior or ____________.
  11. The nose is ____________ to the eyes and ____________ to the mouth.
  12. If your hands and feet are swollen with fluid, you are said to have ____________ or pedal edema.
  13. Death of tissue is called ____________.
  14. The anterior surface of the elbow is called ____________.
  15. Antiperspirant sprays are used in the ____________ region.
  16. The ________ position is laying face upward.
  17. The wrist is ________ to the hand and ________ to the elbow.
  18. When the head is lower than the heart, gravity increases the blood flow and therefore increases the cerebral or ________ pressure.
  19. Left and right always refers to the ________ left and right.
  20. Digital oxygen sensors would be placed on a(n) __________.
  21. Patients are more prone to aspirate vomitus into their lungs in the Trendelenburg position and therefore should not ________ within two to four hours of being placed in that position.
  22. The ______________region of the arm is usually where blood pressures are taken.
  23. Pain in the general stomach area can indicate a variety of problems, including an ulcer, heart attack, appendicitis, ________ , or liver problems.
  24. One of the problems with an X-ray film is that it is a two ________ view of a specific area.
  25. A(n) ________ is a tear in the muscle wall that can allow a structure (usually an organ) to protrude through it.
  26. The ________ regions are located on either side of the epigastric region and contain the lower ribs.
  27. The ________ position is sitting in bed with the head of the bed elevated 45 to 60 degrees.
  28. Placing patients with secretions in the bases of their lungs in the ________ position helps drain those segments of the lungs.
  29. ________ imagers use magnetic energy to produce cross sectional images of body structures.
  30. A patient is placed in a supine position and instructed to raise his or her right leg while the practitioner places a hand on the patient’s right thigh and gives a slight opposing downward force. This procedure is known as the ________ test.
  31. ________ is a condition of bluish colored skin that is usually the result of low levels of oxygen in the blood.
  32. The ________ region is where the thigh meets the trunk and is also called the groin region.
  33. The Psoas test is used to test for _______________.
  34. Death of the tissue is termed ____________.
  35. Heart failure can cause the back-up of fluid into the venous system thus causing the neck or ________ veins to become engorged with extra blood.
  36. A hernia of the “belly button” would be termed an _____________ hernia.
  37. The opposite of distal is ___________________.
  38. The opposite of deep is ______________.
  39. Cyanosis found in the hands and feet would be called peripheral or __________
  40. A(n) ________ is a two dimensional view of a specific area.
  41. A(n) ________ scan creates a three dimensional view of structures in the body.
  42. A patient is in the Intensive Care Unit, has just had brain surgery and is suffering from an increased intracranial pressure. The ________ position is contraindicated in this situation.

True/False

Write ‘T’ if the statement is true and ‘F’ if the statement is false.

____ 1.    ‑The anatomical position is a human being standing erect facing forward with feet parallel and arms hanging at the side with palms facing backward.

____ 2.    ‑The Fowler’s position is the best position for patients having trouble breathing.

____ 3.    ‑The prone position is best for the pelvic exam.

____ 4.    Cranial means superior.

____ 5.    Medial means to the side.

____ 6.    ‑Computed tomography (CT) scanning uses a narrowly focused x-ray beam that circles rapidly around the body.

____ 7.    ‑A CT scan can show the true depth of a quarter-sized tumor shown on regular x-ray.

____ 8.    Peripheral refers to the torso and head.

____ 9.    The opposite of superficial is lateral.

____10.   The cranial cavity houses the brain.

____11.   ‑An orbital injury can cause damage to sight.

____12.   ‑The pubic area is used for cardiopulmonary resuscitation.

____13.   Digital means fingers and toes.

____14.   Cervical means relating to the knee.

____15.   Brachial means lower leg.

Essay

Write your answer in the space provided or on a separate sheet of paper.

  1. List two organs or structures found in each of the RUQ, LUQ, RLQ, and LLQ.

____________________________________________

____________________________________________

____________________________________________

____________________________________________

  1. List and explain the major body planes and sections.

____________________________________________

____________________________________________

____________________________________________

____________________________________________

  1. If a patient complains of pain, what questions should you ask?

____________________________________________

____________________________________________

____________________________________________

____________________________________________

  1. Give the common name for the following body regions: femoral, gluteal, lumbar, antebrachial and cervical.

____________________________________________

____________________________________________

____________________________________________

____________________________________________

  1. Give the opposite of: caudal, distal, external, superficial, and posterior.

____________________________________________

____________________________________________

____________________________________________

____________________________________________

Chapter 3

Multiple Choice

Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.

  1. The smallest unit that retains the chemical properties of a particular type of matter is a(n) ________.
  2. Atom
  3. Molecule
  4. Element
  5. Ion
  6. Atoms or molecules which carry a charge are called ________.
  7. Elements
  8. Protons
  9. Neutrons
  10. Ions
  11. In a person with diabetes, blood may often become acidic. What blood pH might you expect in a person with untreated diabetes?
  12. 7.4
  13. 10.5
  14. 6.0
  15. 13.2
  16. Which of the following is a characteristic of an covalent bond?
  17. Electrons are shared
  18. Electrons are donated
  19. The molecule is always polar
  20. Protons are involved in the bond
  21. The molecule paraffin has the formula C20H44. What does that tell you about the molecule?
  22. It is a protein
  23. It is hydrophobic
  24. It is a nucleic acid
  25. It is polar
  26. In a solution, the ______________ is dissolved in the _________________.
  27. molecule, element
  28. solute, solvent
  29. solvent, solute
  30. element, molecule
  31. Glycogen is a polysaccharide made of long chains of glucose. Glucose is a ________.
  32. Polysaccharide
  33. Disaccharide
  34. Monosaccharide
  35. Saccharin
  36. This type of lipid molecule is important in the structure and function of cell membranes ________.
  37. Wax
  38. Phospholipid
  39. Triglyceride
  40. Estrogen
  41. The building blocks of proteins are ________.
  42. Nucleic acids
  43. Amino acids
  44. Oleic acids
  45. Lewis acids
  46. The chief type of reaction used during catabolism is ________.
  47. Dehydration synthesis
  48. Hydrolysis
  49. Hydration
  50. Hydrogen bonding
  51. What do anabolic steroids do when taken as medication?
  52. Destroy tissue
  53. Fight infection
  54. Build up tissue
  55. Increase fertility
  56. These molecules speed up the rate of biological reactions ________.
  57. Proteins
  58. Enzymes
  59. Antibodies
  60. ATP
  61. During this series of reactions, your cells use glucose to make energy ________.
  62. Metabolism
  63. Enzyme catalyzed
  64. Cellular respiration
  65. Blood clotting
  66. This high energy molecule is made and spent by cells during metabolism ________.
  67. ATP
  68. ADP
  69. AMP
  70. A&P
  71. Which of the following has the highest energy?
  72. ATP
  73. ADP
  74. AMP
  75. A&P
  76. A dietary source for iodine is ________:
  77. celery
  78. sea food
  79. beef
  80. pork
  81. A symptom of fluorine deficiency is ________:
  82. acne
  83. hair loss
  84. dental cavities
  85. low blood pressure
  86. A lack of the ability of the body to carry oxygen may be due to a deficiency in ________:
  87. iron
  88. copper
  89. zinc
  90. gold
  91. The molecule that is stored in the liver to be used for extra energy is ________:
  92. glucose
  93. glycogen
  94. hemoglobin
  95. lipids
  96. Glucose is used by the cells during a series of chemical reactions called ________:
  97. krebs cycle
  98. cellular ventilation
  99. cellular perfusion
  100. cellular respiration

Short Answer

Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question.

  1. Two or more elements joined together is a compound or __________________.
  2. The nucleus of an atom contains protons and _______________.
  3. The _____________ scale is used to measure the strength of acids and bases.
  4. A molecule that will mix with water is called ___________________.
  5. A molecule with the molecular formula CH2O is a(n) ________________.
  6. ____________________ are lipid molecules arranged in rings.
  7. ____________________ molecules may be used for energy storage, movement and protection against infection.
  8. _________________ are the types of molecules involved in cell control and genetics.
  9. All the chemical reactions in a cell are collectively referred to as _________________.
  10. Enzymes can only take particular substrates through particular reactions, because enzymes are ___________________.
  11. Cellular respiration requires both glucose and ________________.
  12. _____________________ molecules have nitrogen in their backbone.
  13. The fluid in your body is mainly _________________.
  14. To digest food your body needs special molecules called ___________ that help break down large molecules.
  15. ______________ molecules have hydrophilic heads and hydrophobic tails.

True/False

Write ‘T’ if the statement is true and ‘F’ if the statement is false.

____ 1.    Ions are hydrophobic.

____ 2.    ‑Physiologically important ions are called trace elements.

____ 3.    ‑Water has hydrogen bonds, which give it its unique properties.

____ 4.    Lead is a biological molecule.

____ 5.    Covalent bonds are polar.

____ 6.    A solution with pH 8 is basic.

____ 7.    Water can store more heat than air.

____ 8.    Disaccharides are a type of lipid.

____ 9.    All steroids are unhealthy.

____10.   ‑Many carbohydrates are energy storage molecules.

____11.   Proteins have peptide bonds.

____12.   ‑Dehydration synthesis can happen easily at room temperature.

____13.   Enzymes can be inhibited.

____14.   ‑During cellular respiration, no ATP is made.

____15.   ‑Chemistry is not important in anatomy and physiology.

Essay

Write your answer in the space provided or on a separate sheet of paper.

  1. Distinguish between the major types of chemical bonds.

____________________________________________

____________________________________________

____________________________________________

____________________________________________

  1. Explain the function of enzymes.

____________________________________________

____________________________________________

____________________________________________

____________________________________________

  1. Explain the molecular differences between carbohydrates, lipids and proteins.

____________________________________________

____________________________________________

____________________________________________

____________________________________________

  1. Explain the structure of an atom.

____________________________________________

____________________________________________

____________________________________________

____________________________________________

  1. Explain metabolism.

____________________________________________

____________________________________________

____________________________________________

____________________________________________

Chapter 4

Multiple Choice

Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.

  1. The organelles that provide 95% of the body’s energy are ________.
  2. Ribosomes
  3. Mitochondria
  4. Adenosines
  5. Cytoplasma
  6. Sperm cells are able to move in a swimming motion by the use of ____________.
  7. Centrioles
  8. Cilia
  9. Vesicles
  10. Flagella
  11. The molecule made by mitochondria that provides the power to the cell is ________.
  12. ATP
  13. RNA
  14. ADP
  15. DNA
  16. A series of channels found within the cytoplasm that is formed from folded membrane is ________.
  17. Golgi apparatus
  18. Facilitated diffusion
  19. Endoplasmic reticulum
  20. Cell membrane
  21. Given that they have lots of golgi, salivary glands and pancreatic cells must perform which function(s)?
  22. Lipid synthesis
  23. DNA synthesis
  24. Protein synthesis
  25. Secretion and storage
  26. The process of cleaning debris and waste from the cell is carried out by ________.
  27. Lysosomes
  28. Lipids
  29. Filaments
  30. Ribosomes
  31. The cell receives its shape from a network of microtubules and filaments known as the ________.
  32. Cytoskeleton
  33. Endoskeleton
  34. Exoskeleton
  35. Microskeleton
  36. ____________ are short, hair-like projections found on the outer surface of specific cells.
  37. Capsids
  38. Vesicles
  39. Cilia
  40. Flagella
  41. The most important molecules for making the cell membrane selectively permeable are ________.
  42. Proteins
  43. Phospholipids
  44. Cholesterol
  45. ATP
  46. When all the carrier molecules are full and no more molecules can be carried across the cell membrane, this is called ________.
  47. Inhibition
  48. Saturation
  49. Competition
  50. Specificity
  51. Which microorganism has the ability to become part of the cell and is then much harder to destroy?
  52. Virus
  53. Fungi
  54. Bacteria
  55. Protozoa
  56. Which molecule is least likely to be able to pass through a cell membrane without help?
  57. H2O
  58. CH4
  59. C6H12O6
  60. C7H16
  61. The process of allowing substances into and out of the cell is controlled by the ________.
  62. Nucleus
  63. Cell membrane
  64. Lysosomes
  65. Golgi apparatus
  66. The cells that make up the human body are called ________.
  67. Mitotic cells
  68. Meiotic cells
  69. Eukaryotic cells
  70. Chromosomal cells
  71. What section of the cell cycle is actually devoted to cell division?
  72. Interphase
  73. Cellphase
  74. Duophase
  75. Mitosis phase
  76. When the body performs cellular respiration, food is changed into a form of energy called ________.
  77. RNA
  78. ADP
  79. DNA
  80. ATP
  81. An organism that produces disease is known as a(n) ________.
  82. Organelle
  83. Pathogen
  84. Magnetosome
  85. Centriole
  86. Which microorganism is spread by the release of spores?
  87. Bacteria
  88. Virus
  89. Fungi
  90. Protozoa
  91. Which disease is caused by a protozoan?
  92. Candidiasis
  93. Shingles
  94. Malaria
  95. Strep
  96. The substance commonly transported during facilitated diffusion is ________.
  97. Glucose
  98. Sodium
  99. Cytoplasm
  100. Potassium
  101. All of the following can reproduce asexually except ________.
  102. Animal cells
  103. Plant cells
  104. Viruses
  105. Bacteria
  106. The mitosis phase has four divisions; when do the chromosomes split?
  107. Anaphase
  108. Metaphase
  109. Prophase
  110. Telephase
  111. Cancer is diagnosed by a variety of techniques, including all of these except ________.
  112. Biopsy
  113. Blood test
  114. Chemotherapy
  115. Imaging
  116. Micro-organisms that live within or on us normally are collectively called ________.
  117. Cancer cells
  118. Normal flora
  119. Epithelial cells
  120. White blood cells
  121. Bacterial cells have no nucleus or organelles and reproduce easily through a process known as ________.
  122. Chromatin
  123. Eukaryosis
  124. Interphase
  125. Binary fission
  126. Which of these is not a function of the cell membrane?
  127. Protein synthesis
  128. Regulation of what moves into and out of the cell
  129. Identifying the cell
  130. Holding the cell together
  131. These are called the “power plants” of the cell ________.
  132. Ribosome
  133. Mitochondria
  134. Golgi apparatus
  135. Lysosomes
  136. Which of these is not part of a cell?
  137. The plasma membrane
  138. The interstitial fluid
  139. The cytoplasm
  140. The nucleus
  141. All of the above are part of the cell
  142. These organelles contain powerful enzymes that take care of cleaning up intracellular debris and other waste ________.
  143. Ribosomes
  144. Smooth endoplasmic reticulum
  145. Mitochondria
  146. Lysosomes
  147. This is the site of protein synthesis in the cell ________.
  148. Mitochondria
  149. Lysosomes
  150. Ribosomes
  151. Golgi apparatus
  152. This organelle consists of tiny flattened sacs that help process and package chemicals in the cell ________.
  153. Ribosome
  154. Mitochondria
  155. Golgi apparatus
  156. Lysosome
  157. These are extremely fine hair-like structures on the surface of the cell ________.
  158. Cilia
  159. Microvilli
  160. Flagella
  161. Rough endoplasmic reticulum
  162. This is the movement of water from an area of lower solute concentration to an area of higher concentration through a membrane ________.
  163. Osmosis
  164. Diffusion
  165. Filtration
  166. Dialysis
  167. During this phase of mitosis, the chromosomes split and the spindles pull them apart ________.
  168. Telophase
  169. Anaphase
  170. Metaphase
  171. Interphase
  172. During this phase of mitosis, chromosomes are aligned in the center of the cell ________.
  173. Telophase
  174. Anaphase
  175. Metaphase
  176. Prophase
  177. This general process is utilized by the cells for the intake of liquid and food when the substance is too large to diffuse across the cell membrane ________.
  178. Pinocytosis
  179. Endocytosis
  180. Exocytosis
  181. Phagocytosis
  182. ________ are unique because they cannot grow, “eat,” or reproduce by themselves.
  183. Bacteria
  184. Fungi
  185. Protozoans
  186. Viruses
  187. Ninety percent of the cell’s life is spent in which phase during the cell cycle ________.
  188. Interphase
  189. Prophase
  190. Anaphase
  191. Metaphase
  192. Telophase
  193. An example of fungal infection is ________.
  194. Athlete’s foot
  195. Thrush
  196. Common cold
  197. a and b only
  198. Malaria is caused by which of the following types of infections?
  199. Viral
  200. Bacterial
  201. Protozoan
  202. Fungal
  203. Signs and symptoms of bacterial infection may include ________.
  204. High fever
  205. Rapid pulse
  206. Pain and swelling
  207. All of the above

Short Answer

Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question.

  1. Parts of the cell are called ____________.
  2. Because all substances cannot pass easily through it, cell membranes are known as selectively permeable or _______________________ membranes.
  3. ____________ is the process in which a substance travels from an area of higher concentration to an area of lower concentration.
  4. The process of blocking a carrier is called ______________________.
  5. _______________ is a process in which water will travel across a semipermeable membrane from an area of lower solute concentration to an area of higher solute concentration.
  6. When a cell membrane actively surrounds a solid substance and forms a vesicle which moves into the cell, this is called ____________.
  7. The ____________ is the control center of the cell.
  8. ____________ act as power plants in the cell.
  9. ____________ are whip-like tails that help cells move.
  10. Normal ____________ are bacteria that are normal in the body.
  11. ____________ are pathogens that are surrounded by capsids.
  12. When cells make copies of themselves without the involvement of another cell, it is called ____________.
  13. The process of sorting the chromosomes so that each new cell gets the right number of copies of all the genetic material is called ____________.
  14. The phase in which the chromosomes become visible is ____________.
  15. The word for non-cancerous is ____________.
  16. ________ are tiny building blocks of all matter which combine to form molecules.
  17. ________ is the process in which water travels through a selectively permeable membrane to equalize concentrations of a solute.
  18. ________ involves using pressure to force water and its solutes through a membrane.
  19. The ________ is a series of channels in the cytoplasm.
  20. ________ are microscopic, hair-like projections on the outer surface of some cells.
  21. A(n) ________ packages and delivers proteins.
  22. Any time a new cell is made, it is made by a process of ________.
  23. The brief portion of the cell cycle that is devoted to actual cell division is the ________ phase.
  24. The phase in which the chromosomes split and the spindles pull apart is ________.
  25. Viruses cannot grow, eat, or reproduce by themselves, but must enter another ________ to do its cellular activities.
  26. Bacteria, which are prokaryotes, grow rapidly and reproduce by splitting in ________.
  27. Following the analogy in your book, consider ribosomes the manufacturing plant for building materials used for ________ and repair.
  28. The breaking off and spreading of malignant cells is called ________.
  29. Benign tumors typically grow slowly, and push ________ cells out of the way.
  30. Without mitosis, your body would not be able to grow, or replace old or ________ cells.
  31. Viruses can stay dormant in the body and become ________ once again, later in life.
  32. Examples of fungal infections are athlete’s foot and a mouth fungus called ________ or candidiasis.
  33. The ability of a substance to “pull” water toward an area of higher concentration of the solute is called ________.
  34. Mitosis is the division and sorting of the genetic material, while ________ is the division of the cytoplasm.
  35. An organism that produces disease is called a(n) ________.
  36. Viruses have their genetic material surrounded by a protective protein coat called

a(n) ________.

  1. Bacterial infections are treated with ________, chemicals that can kill the prokaryotic bacteria without harming eukaryotic cells.
  2. ________ differs from osmosis in that pressure is applied to force water and dissolved materials across a membrane.
  3. A spherical body made up of dense fibers called the ________ is found within the cell nucleus.
  4. The ________ is a network of microtubules and interconnected filaments that provide shape to the cell and allow the cell and its contents to be mobile.
  5. Fungi can spread through the release of ________.
  6. ________ are bacteria that live within or on us and are normally harmless.

True/False

Write ‘T’ if the statement is true and ‘F’ if the statement is false.

____ 1.    The stomach is an organelle.

____ 2.    ‑Proteins prevent ions from crossing cell membranes.

____ 3.    ‑The ability of a substance to pull water towards an area of higher concentration of the solute is filtration.

____ 4.    ‑Cellular respiration makes carbon dioxide as a waste product.

____ 5.    ‑If water is transported across a cell, it is known as phagocytosis.

____ 6.    ‑Cytoplasm is composed of water, nutrients, and electrolytes.

____ 7.    Chromatin is found in the nucleus.

____ 8.    All cells have cell membranes.

____ 9.    ‑The centriole is a whip-like organelle used for cell movement.

____10.   ‑The Golgi apparatus has powerful enzymes that can eat cellular debris.

____11.   Lysis means to break down.

____12.   ‑Metastasis is spreading of benign cancer cells.

____13.   Some bacteria are not pathogenic.

____14.   ‑The four phases of mitosis are prophase, metaphase, anaphase, and telophase.

____15.   ‑Telophase occurs when the chromosomes line up in the center of the cell.

Essay

Write your answer in the space provided or on a separate sheet of paper.

  1. Compare and contrast active and passive transport.

____________________________________________

____________________________________________

____________________________________________

____________________________________________

  1. Describe how isotonic, hypotonic, and hypertonic salt solutions affect osmotic pressure.

____________________________________________

____________________________________________

____________________________________________

____________________________________________

  1. Discuss the characteristics of carrier mediated transport.

____________________________________________

____________________________________________

____________________________________________

____________________________________________

  1. Discuss the levels of organization in the human body from smallest to largest.

____________________________________________

____________________________________________

____________________________________________

____________________________________________

  1. Discuss how cancer is mitosis run amok.

____________________________________________

____________________________________________

____________________________________________

____________________________________________

Chapter 5

Multiple Choice

Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.

  1. Cells that are arranged in several layers are called ____________ cells.
  2. Cuboidal
  3. Stratified
  4. Columnar
  5. Squamous
  6. The lining of the urinary bladder is composed of which type of cell?
  7. Simple squamous
  8. Transitional
  9. Simple cuboidal
  10. Simple columnar
  11. This connective tissue has cells in lacunae in a gel-like matrix ________.
  12. Cartilage
  13. Areolar
  14. Regular
  15. Reticular
  16. Muscle tissue possesses contractility, also known as the ability to ________.
  17. Swell
  18. Mutate
  19. Shorten
  20. Strengthen
  21. This connective tissue has cells in a mineral matrix ________.
  22. Cartilage
  23. Reticular
  24. Bone
  25. Blood
  26. Which membrane is the largest organ of the integumentary system?
  27. Cutaneous
  28. Mucous
  29. Parietal
  30. Visceral
  31. The colon is an organ included in which body system?
  32. Gastrointestinal
  33. Cardiovascular
  34. Integumentary
  35. Reproductive
  36. Which of the following is considered a nonvital organ?
  37. Heart
  38. Gallbladder
  39. Lung
  40. Liver
  41. The production of blood cells occurs within which body system?
  42. Cardiovascular
  43. Muscular
  44. Endocrine
  45. Skeletal
  46. Which type of muscle lines the blood vessels and airways of the body?
  47. Rough
  48. Glia
  49. Smooth
  50. Striated
  51. Your skin, after it is exposed to sunlight, will produce which vitamin?
  52. Vitamin A
  53. Vitamin B
  54. Vitamin C
  55. Vitamin D
  56. Processing and interpreting information, motor functions and sensory functions are responsibilities of which body system?
  57. Muscular
  58. Nervous
  59. Sensory
  60. Endocrine
  61. Balance is the responsibility of which sensory organ?
  62. Ear
  63. Eye
  64. Nose
  65. Throat
  66. What is the first step in wound healing?
  67. Regeneration
  68. Inflammation
  69. Organization
  70. Scarring
  71. Which of the following tissues regenerates well?
  72. Cardiac muscle
  73. Nervous Tissue
  74. Smooth Muscle
  75. Bone
  76. An example of a synovial joint would be the ________.
  77. Axis
  78. Brachial
  79. Temporal
  80. Knee
  81. The movement of food is a function of ________ muscles.
  82. Involuntary
  83. Sensory
  84. Cardiac
  85. Striated
  86. Maintaining the proper acid-base balance of the blood is carried out by which body system?
  87. Skeletal
  88. Respiratory
  89. Musculoskeletal
  90. Integumentary
  91. T-Lymphocytes are specialized cells produced for which function?
  92. Producing red blood cells
  93. Genetic reproduction
  94. Saliva production
  95. Fighting infection
  96. Mucous is ________.
  97. The type of membrane
  98. The material that collects in the corner of the eye
  99. The actual substance secreted by membranes
  100. The substance secreted by synovial membranes
  101. Specialized infection-fighting WBCs are produced by the ________ system.
  102. Cardiovascular
  103. Lymphatic
  104. Integumentary
  105. Endocrine
  106. A patient who has difficulty conceiving most likely has a problem in the ________ system.
  107. Nervous
  108. Urinary
  109. Reproductive
  110. Cardiovascular
  111. One of the functions of the endocrine system is to help you deal with stresses produced by ________.
  112. Trauma
  113. Dizziness
  114. Sleeplessness
  115. Nausea
  116. The term tachypnea means ________.
  117. Fast breathing
  118. Fast heart rate
  119. Fast blood pressure rise
  120. Fast spike in temperature
  121. The body’s largest organ is ________.
  122. The liver
  123. The brain
  124. The large intestine
  125. The skin
  126. The skeletal system includes all but which of the following?
  127. Bones
  128. Cartilage
  129. Ligaments
  130. All of the above are included in the skeletal system
  131. This type of muscle tissue is found in the stomach ________.
  132. Skeletal
  133. Voluntary
  134. Smooth
  135. Cardiac
  136. This type of muscle tissue is found in the heart ________.
  137. Skeletal
  138. Voluntary
  139. Smooth
  140. Cardiac
  141. Which of the following is not a gland in the endocrine system?
  142. Thyroid
  143. Pituitary
  144. Hypothalamus
  145. Salivary
  146. Which of these organs is a primary organ of the digestive system?
  147. Liver
  148. Pancreas
  149. Small intestine
  150. Both a and c
  151. This type of tissue provides rapid communication between various parts of the body ________.
  152. Epithelial
  153. Connective
  154. Muscle
  155. Nervous
  156. This type of tissue covers the body and lines many of the parts of the body ________.
  157. Epithelial
  158. Connective
  159. Muscle
  160. Nervous
  161. This is the most common tissue and is found throughout the body more than any other form ________.
  162. Epithelial
  163. Connective
  164. Muscle
  165. Nervous
  166. This type of tissue specializes in movement of the body ________.
  167. Epithelial
  168. Connective
  169. Muscle
  170. Nervous
  171. This type of tissue can be classified by the shape and arrangement of its cells ________.
  172. Epithelial
  173. Connective
  174. Muscle
  175. Nervous
  176. The ________ system transports water, oxygen, and a variety of nutrients and other substances necessary for life to the cells, and transports waste products away from the cells.
  177. Cardiovascular
  178. Urinary
  179. Digestive
  180. Respiratory
  181. When cells are arranged in a scale-like or flat arrangement, they are referred to as ________.
  182. Squamous
  183. Cuboidal
  184. Columnar
  185. Transitional
  186. Which of the following epithelial membranes is the largest organ of the integumentary system?
  187. cutaneous
  188. parietal
  189. visceral
  190. mucous
  191. Which of the epithelial membranes encases individual organs?
  192. parietal
  193. mucous
  194. visceral
  195. cutaneous
  196. Which membrane lines the wall of the thoracic cavity?
  197. cutaneous
  198. parietal
  199. mucous
  200. visceral

Short Answer

Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question.

  1. When similar cells act together to perform a function, they are called a(n) ____________.
  2. Any avascular tissue with no extracellular matrix and an obvious top surface is __________________ tissue.
  3. The ______________ tissue is a single layer of plate-like cells.
  4. Muscle tissue that is striated is called skeletal or ____________.
  5. A torn ligament involves damage to ________________ connective tissue.
  6. Membranes that cover the brain and spinal cord are called ____________.
  7. The membrane layer that wraps around individual organs is called ____________.
  8. Nervous tissue has two types of cells _______________ and glia.
  9. Adipose tissue is more commonly known as _______________.
  10. Tissue healing begins with cells called ______________________ which draw the edges of the wound together.
  11. The ____________ system delivers oxygen to the bloodstream.
  12. The ____________ system acts as a storm drain and protects the body.
  13. The ____________ system is the main storage for calcium.
  14. The sensory or ____________ system provides sensory information from the external world.
  15. The ____________ system rids the body of carbon dioxide.
  16. In a serous membrane, the membrane layer that lines cavities is called ________.
  17. The combining form for joints is ________.
  18. The combining form for vein is ven/o, veni/i and ________.
  19. The limbs are part of the ________ skeleton.
  20. The skin and hair are parts of the ________ system.
  21. ________ are the sites of exchange between blood and tissue.
  22. Special structures called lymph nodes act as filters to capture unwanted particles or ________.
  23. Hormones produced by the ________ system help you to deal with general stress and stress produced by infection and trauma.
  24. The ________ system helps regulate the number of red blood cells and the acid-base and electrolyte balance of blood.
  25. The ________ layer lines the wall of the cavities in which organs reside.
  26. A membrane associated with connective tissue is the ________ membrane.
  27. Skeletal muscle is described as ________ because of its striped appearance.
  28. ________ are conscious (and unconscious) feelings or an awareness of conditions that occur inside and outside of the body.
  29. The membranes associated with covering the brain and spinal cord are called ________.
  30. The branchlike formations that receive sensory information are called ________.
  31. The ________ layer, which also produces serous fluids, wraps around the individual organs.
  32. The body’s first line of protection is its ________.

True/False

Write ‘T’ if the statement is true and ‘F’ if the statement is false.

____ 1.    Squamous cells are column-like.

____ 2.    ‑Stretchy epithelial tissue is called transitional.

____ 3.    Mucus lubricates tissue.

____ 4.    ‑Connective tissue is the most common tissue.

____ 5.    Blood is a connective tissue.

____ 6.    ‑Involuntary muscle tissue is called skeletal muscle.

____ 7.    ‑Swelling is always a negative symptom which should be prevented at all costs.

____ 8.    Nervous tissue regenerates well.

____ 9.    ‑A mucous membrane is a double layered membrane with a potential space between the layers.

____10.   The liver is part of the urinary system.

____11.   ‑The cardiovascular system is one of the body’s control systems.

____12.   Veins carry blood away from the heart.

____13.   ‑The esophagus is in the gastrointestinal system.

____14.   ‑Nitrogen waste is usually eliminated through the integumentary system.

____15.   ‑Hormones are chemicals which circulate in the bloodstream.

Essay

Write your answer in the space provided or on a separate sheet of paper.

  1. Explain the relationship between cells, tissues, organs and systems.

____________________________________________

____________________________________________

____________________________________________

____________________________________________

  1. Choose one system and list the parts of that system.

____________________________________________

____________________________________________

____________________________________________

____________________________________________

  1. Distinguish between connective and epithelial tissue.

____________________________________________

____________________________________________

____________________________________________

____________________________________________

  1. Explain the steps in wound healing.

____________________________________________

____________________________________________

____________________________________________

____________________________________________

  1. Compare and contrast cardiac, smooth, and skeletal muscle.

____________________________________________

____________________________________________

____________________________________________

____________________________________________

Chapter 6

Multiple Choice

Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.

  1. Which type of bone is cube-shaped in appearance?
  2. Short
  3. Long
  4. Regular
  5. Irregular
  6. The ends of long bones are known as the ____________.
  7. Medulla
  8. Periosteum
  9. Diaphysis
  10. Epiphyses
  11. A narrow ridge of bone is known as the ____________.
  12. Crest
  13. Head
  14. Spine
  15. Condyle
  16. A ____________ is a groove or shallow depression on the surface of a bone.
  17. Facet
  18. Sinus
  19. Fossa
  20. Meatus
  21. An ____________ is a mature bone cell.
  22. Osteoprogenitor
  23. Osteoblast
  24. Osteoclast
  25. Osteocyte
  26. Compact bone is created over the surface of spongy bone by ____________.
  27. Osteoprogenitors
  28. Osteoclasts
  29. Osteons
  30. Osteoblasts
  31. Bone growth will continue for as long as the ____________ plate exists.
  32. Diaphyseal
  33. Epiphyseal
  34. Osteon
  35. Medullary
  36. ____________ is the type of connective tissue that helps to cushion the ends of long bones.
  37. Spongy bone
  38. Cartilage
  39. Bone marrow
  40. Synovium
  41. This type of joint is held together by connective tissue strands ________.
  42. Gliding
  43. Synovial
  44. Cartilaginous
  45. Fibrous
  46. What type of joint is formed when an oval shaped bone fits into an elliptical cavity?
  47. Pivot
  48. Gliding
  49. Hinge
  50. Ellipsoidal
  51. The joints of the hips and shoulders are examples of ____________ joints.
  52. Pivot
  53. Fibrous
  54. Ball and socket
  55. Saddle
  56. This movement occurs when you turn your foot toward the other foot ________.
  57. Eversion
  58. Inversion
  59. Pronation
  60. Flexion
  61. The primary ossification center in long bones is located in the ________.
  62. Epiphyses
  63. Diaphysis
  64. Articular cartilage
  65. Central Canal
  66. The bone disease ____________ is a degenerative disorder, characterized by thinning bones.
  67. Osteoporosis
  68. Osteitis
  69. Osteomyelitis
  70. Osteosarcomas
  71. The last stage in bone repair is ________.
  72. Remodeling
  73. Bony callus formation
  74. Soft callus formation
  75. Hematoma formation
  76. Which mineral is included in the composition of bone?
  77. Iodine
  78. Calcium
  79. Potassium
  80. Iron
  81. The spinal column and bones of the middle ear are part of the ________ skeleton.
  82. Superior
  83. Axial
  84. Inferior
  85. Appendicular
  86. Lordosis is a(n) ________ curvature of the lower back and is commonly called ________.
  87. Left lateral, swayback
  88. Posterior, swayback
  89. Anterior, swayback
  90. Anterior, hunchback
  91. Your textbook lists eight causative agents for bone and joint disorders other than osteoporosis and arthritis. Which of these is not one of them?
  92. Nutritional disorders
  93. Degenerative disorders
  94. Tumors
  95. Osteomalacia
  96. ________ is a nutritional disorder caused by a vitamin D deficiency.
  97. Osteomalacia
  98. Rickets
  99. Scurvy
  100. Both a and b
  101. Scoliosis is an example of what classification of disorders?
  102. Infection
  103. Congenital
  104. Trauma
  105. Secondary
  106. If the body is not in balance, regardless of the cause, spinal curvatures may be exaggerated, leading to ________.
  107. Kyphosis
  108. Scoliosis
  109. Lordosis
  110. All of the above
  111. Which of these is not a type of arthritis?
  112. Rheumatoid
  113. Osteo
  114. Septic
  115. Cruciate
  116. A bone fracture in your arm would be part of the ________ division of the skeleton.
  117. Thoracic
  118. Appendicular
  119. Axial
  120. Spinal
  121. This refers to the shaft of a long bone ________.
  122. Epiphyses
  123. Periosteum
  124. Diaphysis
  125. Endosteum
  126. This is the strong, fibrous connective tissue covering the bone ________.
  127. Epiphyses
  128. Periosteum
  129. Diaphysis
  130. Endosteum
  131. This term refers to the ends of a long bone ________.
  132. Epiphyses
  133. Periosteum
  134. Diaphysis
  135. Endosteum
  136. This membrane lines the spongy bone ________.
  137. Epiphyses
  138. Periosteum
  139. Diaphysis
  140. Endosteum
  141. This is the location in the bone where hemopoiesis occurs ________.
  142. Epiphyses
  143. Periosteum
  144. Diaphysis
  145. Medullary cavity
  146. The microscopic cylindrical-shaped unit of compact bone is called ________.
  147. The endosteum
  148. The cancellous
  149. The osteon
  150. The trabeculae
  151. The bar and plate-like tissue of spongy bone are called ________.
  152. Flagellite
  153. Osteocytes
  154. Osteon
  155. Trabeculae
  156. Bone-building cells are called ________.
  157. Osteoblasts
  158. Osteoclasts
  159. Osteocytes
  160. Hemopoietics
  161. The skeleton can still grow as long as there is cartilage left in the ________.
  162. Haversian system
  163. Diaphysis
  164. Epiphyseal plate
  165. Chondrocytes
  166. An abnormal side-to-side curve in the vertebral column is called ________.
  167. Lordosis
  168. Kyphosis
  169. Scoliosis
  170. Convexities
  171. The number of pairs of true ribs is ________.
  172. 12
  173. 14
  174. 5
  175. 7
  176. These joints permit the widest range of movement ________.
  177. Hinge
  178. Pivot
  179. Saddle
  180. Ball and socket
  181. This bone condition occurs most frequently in postmenopausal women with calcium deficiencies ________.
  182. Rickets
  183. Osteomalacia
  184. Osteoporosis
  185. Paget’s disease
  186. Ensuring that young children had a sufficient amount of vitamin D would prevent ________.
  187. Rickets
  188. Osteomalacia
  189. Osteoporosis
  190. Paget’s disease
  191. Another name for a compound fracture is ________.
  192. An open fracture
  193. A closed fracture
  194. A comminuted fracture
  195. An impacted fracture
  196. ________ is a general term used to describe an inflammatory process of a joint or joints.
  197. Arthritis
  198. Osteoarthritis
  199. Gout
  200. Bursitis
  201. ________ is a degenerative condition that is a result of simple “wearing out” of a joint from a sports injury, trauma, repetitive motion, obesity, or just the aging process.
  202. Rheumatoid arthritis
  203. Osteoarthritis
  204. Gout
  205. Bursitis
  206. ________ is a chronic, systemic disease that is believed to be an autoimmune condition affecting the connective tissue of the body.
  207. Gout
  208. Bursitis
  209. Septic arthritis
  210. Rheumatoid arthritis
  211. ________ is the result of the infective process of a pathogen that was introduced to a joint from a penetrating wound or a blood-borne pathogen.
  212. Rheumatoid arthritis
  213. Gout
  214. Septic arthritis
  215. Arthritis
  216. A cleft palate is an example of which of the following?
  217. Congenital disorder
  218. Degenerative disorder
  219. Infection
  220. Nutritional disorder
  221. Osteoporosis is an example of which of the following?
  222. Congenital disorder
  223. Infection
  224. Degenerative disorder
  225. Nerve disorder
  226. Signs and symptoms of osteoarthritis include which of the following?
  227. Joint develops a crooked deformation
  228. Greater range of motion
  229. Painful swelling of affected joint
  230. a and c only
  231. This is a common sports injury caused by twisting of the leg, or an anterior or posterior blow when the leg is planted or bearing weight ________.
  232. Cruciate ligament tears
  233. Gout
  234. Osteomalacia
  235. Osteoporosis

Short Answer

Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question.

  1. The hollow region in the bone is the ____________ cavity.
  2. Tarsals are examples of ____________ bones.
  3. Vertebrae are examples of ____________ bones.
  4. Spongy bone tissue is arranged in bars and plates called ____________.
  5. The production of red blood cells is known as erythropoiesis or____________.
  6. An articulating end of a bone that is rounded and enlarged is called a(n) ____________.
  7. A hollow area is a(n) ____________.
  8. A tube or tunnel-like passageway through bone is a canal or____________.
  9. The larger version of a tubercle located only on the femur is the ____________.
  10. Ossification or ____________ is the term used to describe the formation of bone in the body.
  11. Broken bones will not knit together unless they are touching or ___________.
  12. The clavicle and skull bones form via __________________ ossification.
  13. The tissue making up most of your skeleton until embryonic week 8 is known as ________________.
  14. When joints become inflamed, this is called ____________.
  15. ____________ means to move away.
  16. The end of the bone is called the ________.
  17. A special form of connective tissue that can withstand a fair amount of flexing, tension, and pressure is ________ or ligaments and tendons.
  18. When joints become inflamed, it is called ________,

.

  1. When two or more bones meet, we have an ________.
  2. ________ describes increasing the angle of a joint.
  3. Cruciate ligament tears are treated with rest, immobilization, and/or ________ intervention.
  4. Pain medication can include non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) such as naproxen and ibuprofen. These drugs reduce ________, thus reducing pain and swelling.
  5. Because of the continual breakdown of old and creation of new bone, adults actually need more calcium in their diets than do ________.
  6. Osteoporosis is a metabolic problem with slow, progressive decrease in bone ________.
  7. A compound or ________ fracture is particularly nasty because deep tissue has the potential to be exposed to bacteria once the bone is set into place, increasing the chance for infection.
  8. A patient should see the doctor for any obvious bone deformity or misalignment of a(n) ________.
  9. Very tough, whitish bands that connect from bone to bone are called ________.
  10. Another term for the production of red blood cells is ________.
  11. ________ is a chronic, systemic disease that is believed to be an autoimmune condition affecting the connective tissue of the body.
  12. ________ bones are fairly equal sized in width and length, similar to a cube, and are mostly found in your wrists and ankles.
  13. ________ joints are found in your knees and elbows.
  14. If a bone is crushed to the point that it becomes fragmented or splintered, that is classified as a ________ fracture.
  15. The ________ in women is different than in men. This fact can be used to identify the sex of a skeleton, such as in a murder case or an archeological find.
  16. Osteoporosis research is showing that ________, especially weight bearing and impact forms, improves bone density.
  17. ________ is a condition in which the upper portion of the spine exhibits a posterior curve, producing what is commonly called a humpback or hunchback.
  18. ________ is a lateral curvature of the spine.
  19. ________ is an anterior curve of the lower back and is commonly called swayback.
  20. A fine fracture that does not completely break or displace the bone is a(n) ________ fracture.
  21. A(n) ________ or closed fracture is a break without a puncture to the skin.
  22. An individual in an accident who has a bone that is severely twisted may receive a(n)________ fracture.
  23. ________ fractures are incomplete breaks, which more often occur in children because they have softer, more pliable bone than adults.
  24. A fracture in which the bone is pushed through the skin is referred to as a(n) ________ or open fracture.
  25. Tendonitis or tendinitis often occurs in conjunction with ________.

True/False

Write ‘T’ if the statement is true and ‘F’ if the statement is false.

____ 1.    ‑Bending your knee is an example of joint extension.

____ 2.    ‑The deltoid muscle moves the arm away from the body. It is a flexor.

____ 3.    Supination turns the palm downward.

____ 4.    ‑One hundred twenty-six bones comprise the appendicular skeleton.

____ 5.    ‑The appendicular skeleton includes bones of the thorax, spinal column, hyoid bone, bones of the middle ear, and skull.

____ 6.    The tarsals are the toe bones.

____ 7.    There are twelve thoracic vertebrae.

____ 8.    The skull has mainly synovial joints.

____ 9.    ‑Once you reach puberty bone stops regenerating.

____10.   ‑The heel of the foot is known as the acromion process.

____11.   The patella is the kneecap.

____12.   Bone is covered by endosteum.

____13.   ‑The lining of a freely moving joint is cartilage only.

____14.   Fibrous joints are not freely moving.

____15.   ‑Arthritis is mainly caused by cracking your knuckles and slouching.

Essay

Write your answer in the space provided or on a separate sheet of paper.

  1. Explain the microanatomy of compact bone.

____________________________________________

____________________________________________

____________________________________________

____________________________________________

  1. Describe how the body makes new bone.

____________________________________________

____________________________________________

____________________________________________

____________________________________________

  1. List five types of bone disorders.

____________________________________________

____________________________________________

____________________________________________

____________________________________________

  1. List three types of joint disorders.

____________________________________________

____________________________________________

____________________________________________

____________________________________________

  1. Explain the steps in bone repair.

____________________________________________

____________________________________________

____________________________________________

____________________________________________

Chapter 7

Multiple Choice

Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.

  1. Thin myofilaments are called ________.
  2. Z bars
  3. Myosin
  4. Myofibril
  5. Actin
  6. Muscles may be named using ________.
  7. Speed
  8. Action
  9. Age
  10. Myofilament type
  11. When the nervous system signals a muscle to contract ____________ ion channels open.
  12. Phosphorus
  13. Sodium
  14. Myosin
  15. Actin
  16. Skeletal muscle produces body movement as well as maintains our ____________ as we sit.
  17. Strength
  18. Vasodilation
  19. Vasoconstriction
  20. Posture
  21. The _____________________ is the prime elbow flexor.
  22. Biceps femoris
  23. Biceps brachii
  24. Triceps brachii
  25. Flexor digitorum
  26. The _____________________ muscle is located on the front of the lower leg.
  27. Gastrocnemium
  28. Latissimus dorsi
  29. Tibialis anterior
  30. Hamstrings
  31. Which type of muscle will not regenerate once it is severely damaged?
  32. Smooth
  33. Visceral
  34. Cardiac
  35. Skeletal
  36. Which term is used to designate muscle pain?
  37. Myalgia
  38. Ataxia
  39. Paralysis
  40. Spasm
  41. Which disorder affects the peripheral nervous system usually with ascending paralysis starting in the feet?
  42. Muscular dystrophy
  43. Guillain-Barré syndrome
  44. Myasthenia gravis
  45. Tetanus
  46. Striated muscles, which appear to have stripes, are in which type of muscle?
  47. Skeletal
  48. Internal
  49. Visceral
  50. Smooth
  51. Blood is pumped through the heart by which type of muscle?
  52. Skeletal
  53. Smooth
  54. Cardiac
  55. Visceral
  56. The stationary attachment of the muscle is called the ____________.
  57. Point of movement
  58. Point of insertion
  59. Point of control
  60. Point of origin
  61. The only muscle that possesses both voluntary and involuntary abilities is the ________.
  62. Heart
  63. Lung
  64. Diaphragm
  65. Brain
  66. Rotation occurs when you have movement around a(n) ________.
  67. Axis
  68. Vessel
  69. Vertebrae
  70. Ball and socket
  71. The muscle movement that enables a joint to bend is the ________.
  72. Flexion
  73. Flexor
  74. Extension
  75. Extensor
  76. Muscle cells are made up of ________.
  77. Z bars
  78. Myosin
  79. Myofibrils
  80. Actin
  81. The myofilaments used during muscle contractions will return to their resting state when the ________ relax.
  82. Sarcomeres
  83. Myosin
  84. Actin
  85. Z Bars
  86. When the nervous system signals a muscle to contract, the ________ ion channels open.
  87. Phosphorus
  88. Sodium
  89. Myosin
  90. Actin
  91. Skeletal muscles are able to contract ________ times faster than smooth muscle.
  92. 20
  93. 40
  94. 50
  95. 60
  96. Approximately ________ percent of the body’s weight comes from its muscles.
  97. 15
  98. 50
  99. 65
  100. 80
  101. The part of the muscle that attaches to the bone that is stationary is called the ________.
  102. Point of movement
  103. Point of insertion
  104. Point of control
  105. Point of origin
  106. The symptom of shin splints is ________.
  107. Patellar displacement
  108. Swelling in the wrist
  109. Pain in the tibia
  110. Bruising of the shins
  111. Myasthenia gravis is a(n) ________ disorder.
  112. Malignant
  113. Genetic
  114. Myosin
  115. Autoimmune
  116. The etiology of fibromyalgia is ________.
  117. Unknown
  118. Acute injury
  119. Sudden, involuntary muscle spasms
  120. Bacterial infection
  121. Duchenne muscular dystrophy is a(n) ________ defect in muscle protein
  122. Autoimmune
  123. Genetic
  124. Unknown
  125. Acute
  126. The bacteria clostridium tetani release a toxin that ________.
  127. Relaxes muscles and tightens ligaments
  128. Causes intermittent muscle spasms
  129. Causes the patient to go into shock
  130. Keeps muscles constantly contracted
  131. Which of the following is not a symptom of myopathy?
  132. Weakness
  133. Genetics
  134. Stiffness
  135. Spasm
  136. Atrophy means muscles ________.
  137. Have increased growth
  138. Waste away
  139. Will be scarred
  140. Develop excessively in childhood
  141. The toxin used in Botox to treat wrinkles is ________.
  142. Botulinum toxin
  143. Clostridium tetani
  144. Staph
  145. Acetylcholine
  146. A severe muscle strain can cause all of the following symptoms except ________.
  147. Complete loss of movement
  148. Swelling
  149. Severe pain
  150. Fever
  151. The location of pain is confined to tender points in ________.
  152. Muscular dystrophy
  153. Tetanus
  154. Myasthenia gravis
  155. Fibromyalgia
  156. Another name for a voluntary muscle is ________.
  157. Striated muscle
  158. Cardiac muscle
  159. Skeletal muscle
  160. Both a and c
  161. This type of muscle tissue contains striations.
  162. Voluntary muscle
  163. Cardiac muscle
  164. Smooth muscle
  165. Both a and b
  166. Another name for visceral muscle is ________.
  167. Cardiac muscle
  168. Voluntary muscle
  169. Smooth muscle
  170. Striated muscle
  171. Strength training causes ________.
  172. Muscle atrophy
  173. A decrease in blood vessels to a muscle
  174. Muscle hypertrophy
  175. A decrease in the number of mitochondria in a muscle cell
  176. In the bending of the elbow ________.
  177. The triceps brachii is the synergist
  178. The biceps brachii is the prime mover
  179. The biceps brachii is the antagonist
  180. The brachialis is the prime mover
  181. The triceps brachii and the biceps brachii ________.
  182. Are synergistic for each other
  183. Both have their origin in the forearm
  184. Are antagonist to each other
  185. Both have their insertions in the shoulder
  186. Intercalated discs are found in ________.
  187. Striated muscle
  188. Cardiac muscle
  189. Smooth muscle
  190. All of the above
  191. Wasting away or deterioration of muscle is called ________.
  192. Hypertrophy
  193. Ankylosis
  194. Atrophy
  195. Myositis
  196. ________ is an injury that is the result of overuse, overstretching, or forcible stretching of a muscle beyond its functional capacity. It sometimes involves a tendon or ligament.
  197. Avulsion
  198. Sprain
  199. Shin splints
  200. Strain
  201. A strong, tough strand or cord of dense connective tissue that serves as an attachment for muscle to bone is ________.
  202. A ligament
  203. Cartilage
  204. Adipose tissue
  205. A tendon
  206. Endurance training results in ________.
  207. Muscle atrophy
  208. An increase in blood vessels to a muscle
  209. Muscle hypertrophy
  210. An increase in muscle fibers
  211. The movement that is opposite of flexion is ________.
  212. Abduction
  213. Rotation
  214. Extension
  215. Supination
  216. ________ provides the energy to help the myosin heads form and break the crossbridges with actin.
  217. ATP
  218. Calcium
  219. Potassium
  220. Vitamin D
  221. All of the following can be used in naming a muscle except ________.
  222. Location of attachments
  223. Size
  224. Action
  225. Shape
  226. Color
  227. Pectoralis major is located in or near the ________.
  228. Elbow
  229. Chest
  230. Upper portion of the thigh
  231. Front of lower leg
  232. Symptoms of tendinosis include which of the following?
  233. Pain
  234. Tenderness
  235. Stiffness
  236. All of the above
  237. A common running-related inflammatory injury of the extensor muscles and surrounding tissues of the lower legs is called ________.
  238. Shin splints
  239. Tendinitis
  240. Muscle sprain
  241. Myopathy
  242. The majority of fibromyalgia patients are ________.
  243. Men
  244. Women
  245. Children
  246. Elderly
  247. This bacteria releases a toxin that keeps muscles constantly contracted and causes tetanus.
  248. Meningitis
  249. E. Coli
  250. Staphylococcus aureus
  251. Clostridium tetani
  252. Which of the following conditions can be the result of prolonged physical activity, excessive fluid/electrolyte loss, or menstruation?
  253. Tetanus
  254. Fibromyalgia syndrome
  255. Cramps/spasms
  256. Strains/tendinitis
  257. Progressive fluctuating muscle weakness, often starting in the facial or eye muscles are signs and symptoms of which disease?
  258. Mitochondrial myopathy
  259. Fibromyalgia syndrome
  260. Myasthenia gravis
  261. Duchenne muscular dystrophy
  262. Progressive descending muscle spasm, rigidity, stiffness and pain, especially in the jaw are signs and symptoms of which disease?
  263. Tetanus
  264. Fibromyalgia syndrome
  265. Cramps/spasms
  266. Strains/tendinitis

Short Answer

Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question.

  1. The 3 types of muscle are cardiac, skeletal, and ____________.
  2. ____________ attach bone to bone.
  3. The end of the muscle that is attached to the moving bone is the ____________.
  4. Muscles that cause movement in the opposite direction of the prime mover when they contract are called ____________.
  5. The muscle that controls breathing is the ____________.
  6. A muscle that bends a joint is called a(n) ____________ muscle.
  7. The sternocleidomastoid is attached at the sternum, mastoid process and ____________
  8. Motor neurons release the neurotransmitter ____________.
  9. During muscle contraction myosin heads bind to ______________.
  10. Increased muscle growth is called ____________.
  11. Muscles convert ____________ to glucose.
  12. ____________ means muscle pain or tenderness.
  13. ____________ is a condition of muscle wasting.
  14. ____________ is a bacterial infection that causes rigid paralysis.
  15. ____________ describes increasing the angle of a joint.
  16. ________ is the study of muscles and movement.
  17. When blood vessels get larger in diameter, it is called ________.
  18. When the body dies, excess calcium remains in the muscles and causes the ________ fibers to shorten and stiffen the body.
  19. During an asthma attack, the smooth muscles in the airways of the lungs ________, causing the patient to have difficulty getting air in and out.
  20. Tetanus is a muscle disease caused by an untreated bacterial infection of a(n) ________.
  21. The majority of fibromyalgia syndrome patients are ________.
  22. Vasoconstriction can cause blood pressure to ________.
  23. Vasodilation can cause the blood pressure to ________.
  24. Some muscular diseases can cause ________, which is a condition of irregular muscle movement and lack of muscle coordination.
  25. The main skeletal muscle that controls our breathing is the ________.
  26. A(n) ________ is a test in which a muscle group is stimulated with an electrical impulse that causes a contraction.
  27. When excess calcium remains in the muscles throughout the body and causes the muscle fibers to shorten (contract) and stiffen the whole body, ________ has set in.
  28. ________ are donut-shaped muscles that act as doorways to let materials in and out by alternately contracting and relaxing.
  29. A common running-related inflammatory injury of the extensor muscles and surrounding tissues of the lower legs is called ________.
  30. ________ or tendinitis is a degenerative disease leading to breakdown and scarring of tendons, that appears to be caused by the failure of tendons to repair themselves after injury.
  31. The sarcomere has the actin and myosin filaments arranged in repeating units separated from each other by dark bands called Z________.
  32. ________ (also known as lock jaw) is a muscle disorder caused by an untreated bacterial infection of a wound.
  33. Muscle strains are injuries caused by overstretching the ________ or the muscles themselves.
  34. ________ is a degenerative disease leading to breakdown and scarring of tendons.
  35. Cramps or ________ are a sudden, severe involuntary muscle contraction.
  36. ________ cause pain in the tibia region.
  37. ________ is a potentially deadly disease caused by food poisoning with the Clostridium botulinum bacteria.
  38. Strains (tears) or ________ can be caused by an acute injury or chronic overuse or disease.

True/False

Write ‘T’ if the statement is true and ‘F’ if the statement is false.

____ 1.    Smooth muscle is found in the stomach.

____ 2.    Ligaments attach muscle to bone.

____ 3.    The rectus femoris is in the arm.

____ 4.    ‑Abduction moves a muscle away from midline.

____ 5.    ‑Extension decreases the angle between 2 bones.

____ 6.    Vasoconstriction makes vessels smaller.

____ 7.    ‑Cardiac muscle is only found in the heart.

____ 8.    Hypertrophy is muscle wasting.

____ 9.    ‑Ataxia is partial or total loss of the ability to move muscles.

____10.   Sprains are tears or breaks in ligaments.

____11.   ‑Guillain-Barré syndrome is a disorder of the peripheral nervous system.

____12.   ‑An electromyograph records electrical activity in muscles.

____13.   ‑A hernia is caused when tendons become inflamed.

____14.   ‑The pectoralis major muscle is named for its action.

____15.   Smooth muscle is voluntary muscle.

Essay

Write your answer in the space provided or on a separate sheet of paper.

  1. Explain the steps underlying skeletal muscle contraction.

____________________________________________

____________________________________________

____________________________________________

____________________________________________

  1. Explain why corpses become stiff.

____________________________________________

____________________________________________

____________________________________________

____________________________________________

  1. List the rules for naming muscles

____________________________________________

____________________________________________

____________________________________________

____________________________________________

  1. Explain the structure of a sarcomere.

____________________________________________

____________________________________________

____________________________________________

____________________________________________

  1. Compare and contrast myasthenia gravis, muscular dystrophy, Guillain-Barré Syndrome and tetanus.

____________________________________________

____________________________________________

____________________________________________

____________________________________________

Chapter 8

Multiple Choice

Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.

  1. What is the layer of skin that we can see?
  2. Subcutaneous fascia
  3. Epidermis
  4. Stratum basale
  5. Dermis
  6. Patches of melanin found on the skin form ____________.
  7. Melanocytes
  8. Freckles
  9. Bilirubin
  10. Carotene
  11. The condition of yellow jaundice occurs when the body builds up excess
  12. Carotene
  13. Melanin
  14. Bilirubin
  15. Freckles
  16. Collagenous and elastic fibers of the ____________ make it possible for the skin to flex with movement of the body.
  17. Dermis
  18. Subcutaneous
  19. Epidermis
  20. Fascia
  21. ____________ sweat glands become active at puberty.
  22. Sebaceous
  23. Apocrine
  24. Salivary
  25. Eccrine
  26. The skin is attached to the muscles of the body by the ____________ layer.
  27. Epidermis
  28. Dermis
  29. Hypodermis
  30. Subcutaneous
  31. Connective tissue of the skin is developed from ____________.
  32. Melanocytes
  33. Fibroblasts
  34. Collagen
  35. Fascia
  36. What is the degree of burn in which all three layers of skin have been destroyed and the victim feels no pain?
  37. First
  38. Second
  39. Third
  40. Fourth
  41. The “rule of ____________” is a system devised to assess the amount of body surface affected by a burn.
  42. Injury
  43. Nines
  44. Many
  45. Five
  46. After a severe burn, a patient may require a(n) ____________, in which skin is removed from an unaffected area of his body and moved to the burned area.
  47. Antibacterial patch
  48. Heterograft
  49. Donor site
  50. Autograft
  51. Epidermal cells are sloughed off from the ________.
  52. Basal layer
  53. Clear layer
  54. Horny layer
  55. Dermal layer
  56. Specialized epithelial cells originating from the nail ____________ form your nails.
  57. Root
  58. Cells
  59. Bed
  60. Base
  61. What color would you expect to see at a healthy nail bed?
  62. Blanche
  63. White
  64. Pink
  65. Tan
  66. By the time epidermal cells reach the surface of the epidermis they are filled with ________.
  67. Keratin
  68. Carotene
  69. Lunula
  70. Granulosa
  71. The integumentary system plays an important role in regulating the body’s ____________.
  72. Environment
  73. Composition
  74. Elasticity
  75. Temperature
  76. Medication placed into the skin is called ________.
  77. Intravascular
  78. Intramuscular
  79. Intracutaneous
  80. Intraspinal
  81. ________ is a disease in which there is reduced blood flow to the extremities.
  82. PVD
  83. Jaundice
  84. Dermatitis
  85. RBC
  86. Which of the following is not a fungal infection?
  87. Tinea pedis
  88. Tinnitus corporis
  89. Tinea cruris
  90. Tinea corporis
  91. Fourth degree burns penetrate ________.
  92. To the muscle
  93. To the subcutaneous tissue
  94. To the skin
  95. To the bone
  96. Jaundice is caused by a build-up in the body of ________.
  97. Carotene
  98. Bilirubin
  99. Melanin
  100. Bile
  101. Pubic lice are often called ________.
  102. Bugs
  103. Sex bugs
  104. Nits
  105. Crabs
  106. Treatment for Herpes is ________.
  107. Antivirals
  108. Antibiotics
  109. Steroids
  110. Medicated cream
  111. Diabetes is a disease that may cause reduced blood flow to the extremities. This condition is known as ________.
  112. Keloid
  113. Folliculitis
  114. Peripheral vascular disease (PVD)
  115. Dermatitis
  116. Plantar warts are found ________.
  117. On children’s hands and fingers
  118. Around the mouth and nose
  119. On the genitals
  120. On the sole of the foot
  121. A lesion can include all of the following except ________.
  122. Wound
  123. Injury
  124. Single patch of skin
  125. Infected follicle
  126. A condition that has a “bulls-eye” macule/papule is ________.
  127. Scabies
  128. General warts
  129. Acne
  130. Lyme disease
  131. Tinea capitis, tinea corporis, tinea pedis, and tinea cruris are caused by ________.
  132. Bacteria
  133. Mites
  134. Fungi
  135. Ringworms
  136. Causes of alopecia (baldness) include ______.
  137. Chemotherapy and other medications
  138. Aging and heredity factors
  139. Scalp infections
  140. All of the above
  141. Which statement is not true of the epidermis?
  142. It is a stratified squamous epithelium.
  143. It is composed mostly of connective tissue.
  144. It is the outermost layer of skin.
  145. It contains the stratum corneum.
  146. The stratum corneum ________.
  147. Is composed of mostly dead cells
  148. Is the innermost layer of the epidermis
  149. Contains melanocytes which give the skin color
  150. Both b and c
  151. The skin tans in response to sunlight because of the release of ________.
  152. Keratin
  153. Melanin
  154. Sebum
  155. Collagen
  156. ________ is a chronic skin condition marked by thick, flaky, red patches of various sizes, covered with white, silvery patches.
  157. Psoriasis
  158. Atopic dermatitis (eczema)
  159. Herpes zoster
  160. Seborrheic dermatitis
  161. ________ is an eruption of extremely painful vesicles that occur in a band-like pattern along the course of a spinal nerve pathway.
  162. Scabies
  163. Pediculosis
  164. Herpes zoster
  165. Acne vulgaris
  166. The treatment of cellulitis includes ________.
  167. Incision and drainage
  168. Antibiotics
  169. Antifungal medications
  170. All of the above
  171. Which of the following is not found in the dermis of the skin?
  172. Connective tissue
  173. Nerve endings
  174. Melanocytes, which give the skin color
  175. Sweat glands
  176. The layer of epithelial tissue under the fingernail, actually part of the epidermis, is called ________.
  177. The nail body
  178. The cuticle
  179. The lunula
  180. The nail bed
  181. This type of gland secretes oil for the skin and hair.
  182. A sebaceous gland
  183. A sudoriferous gland
  184. An eccrine gland
  185. An apocrine gland
  186. Burns that are characterized by blisters, severe pain, and swelling are classified as ________.
  187. First-degree burns
  188. Second-degree burns
  189. Third-degree burns
  190. Fourth-degree burns
  191. The rule of nines is used to ________.
  192. Determine the depth of burns
  193. Determine the color of burns
  194. Determine the body surface area burned
  195. Both a and b
  196. This skin infection is also called furuncles.
  197. Tinea
  198. Impetigo
  199. Warts
  200. Boils
  201. This skin infection is caused by a papilloma virus.
  202. Tinea
  203. Impetigo
  204. Warts
  205. Boils
  206. Individuals with a malfunctioning adrenal gland may have what color of skin?
  207. Blue
  208. Red
  209. Yellow
  210. Bronze
  211. Folliculitis is inflammation of the hair follicles and is usually caused by what type of bacteria?
  212. Streptococcus
  213. Staphylococcus
  214. Mycobacterium
  215. E. Coli
  216. Chicken pox is caused by the ________ virus.
  217. Herpes varicella
  218. Herpes zoster
  219. Herpes simplex type 1
  220. Herpes simplex type 2
  221. Fever blisters or cold sores are caused by the ________ virus.
  222. Herpes varicella
  223. Herpes zoster
  224. Herpes simplex type 1
  225. Herpes simplex type 2
  226. Genital herpes is caused by the ________ virus.
  227. Herpes varicella
  228. Herpes zoster
  229. Herpes simplex type 1
  230. Herpes simplex type 2
  231. Shingles is caused by the ________ virus.
  232. Herpes varicella
  233. Herpes zoster
  234. Herpes simplex type 1
  235. Herpes simplex type 2
  236. ________ are normally found on children’s hands and fingers.
  237. Plantar warts
  238. Common warts
  239. Genital warts
  240. None of the above
  241. ________ are found on the sole of the foot and tend to grow inward exhibiting a smooth surface.
  242. Plantar warts
  243. Common warts
  244. Genital warts
  245. None of the above
  246. ________ are highly contagious and sexually transmitted.
  247. Plantar warts
  248. Common warts
  249. Genital warts
  250. None of the above
  251. ________ is the most common type of fungal skin infection and is highly contagious.
  252. Tinea corporis
  253. Tinea unguium
  254. Tinea cruris
  255. Tinea pedis
  256. ________ is a fungal infection of the groin and scrotal areas that mainly affects men.
  257. Tinea corporis
  258. Tinea unguium
  259. Tinea cruris
  260. Tinea pedis
  261. ________ is incorrectly called ringworm.
  262. Tinea corporis
  263. Tinea unguium
  264. Tinea cruris
  265. Tinea pedis
  266. ________ is a condition in which a fungal infection is involved with either fingernails or toenails.
  267. Tinea corporis
  268. Tinea unguium
  269. Tinea cruris
  270. Tinea pedis
  271. Cellulitis is an inflammatory condition of the skin and subcutaneous tissue caused by what bacteria?
  272. Streptococcus
  273. Staphylococcus
  274. Mycobacterium
  275. E. Coli
  276. A burn victim comes into your local Emergency Room and you are helping to assess the extent of their burns. In your assessment, you notice that the patient has burns on their head and neck, their right arm, right leg, and the front of the torso. You determine that the patient has burns over ________ % of their body.
  277. 45
  278. 63
  279. 54
  280. 36

Short Answer

Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question.

  1. The layer in which epidermal cells are born is known as the ____________.
  2. The outermost surface of the skin is known as the ____________.
  3. _________ are responsible for your skin color.
  4. ____________ glands secrete oil.
  5. Fat cells are known as ____________.
  6. Cells which can develop into connective tissue are called ____________.
  7. Two factors when assessing burns are ____________ and area damaged.
  8. A first degree burn penetrates through the _________________.
  9. Sublingually means under the ____________.
  10. Hair is composed of fibrous protein called ____________.
  11. ________ or bilirubin is the substance that gives skin a yellow hue.
  12. Hair stands on end in an attempt to regulate ________________.
  13. A(n) ____________ is a crack or groove in the skin.
  14. This __________________ layer of the skin regenerates easily after injury.
  15. A boil is also called a(n) ____________.
  16. The basal layer of the epidermis is known as ________.
  17. The front of the ________ is considered to be 18% of the skin surface area.
  18. Hair is composed of fibrous protein called ________.
  19. When blood vessels get larger in diameter it is known as ________.
  20. When blood vessels get smaller in diameter it is known as ________.
  21. A(n) ________ or hive is a small, raised, round area on the skin that sometimes itches.
  22. Warts, or ________, are caused by the papilloma virus.
  23. Alopecia is the term for any type of ________ loss.
  24. Lyme disease involves multiple body systems as a result of a bacterial ________ that is spread by the bite of a deer tick.
  25. Severe burns require healing at an intensity the body ________ normally achieve on its own.
  26. Trapped sebum can stagnate and dry out, becoming darkened. This is called a(n) ________.
  27. Ideally a wound heals from the inside, working its way toward the outside or ________.
  28. When accessing burns, there are two factors: the ________ of the burn and the size of the area burned.
  29. Initially the patient with third degree burns will feel no ________.
  30. Herpes is a lifelong virus that produces skin inflammation (lesions) in the form of ________.
  31. As bilirubin builds up in the body, ________ occurs, giving the skin a deeper yellow color.
  32. ________ is characterized by the “bull’s eye” rash as a result of a bacterial infection that is spread via the bite of the deer tick.
  33. ________ is a condition in which a fungal infection is involved with either fingernails or toenails.
  34. A mass of excessive scar tissue that has a raised and firm, irregular shape is called a(n) ________.
  35. The hair that you see is called the shaft, and the root extends down into the dermis to the ________.
  36. The sebaceous gland secretes ________, an oily substance that coats the follicle and works its way to the skin’s surface.
  37. Tiny mites that burrow into the skin to lay eggs cause a condition known as ________.
  38. ________ is the body’s attempt to get as much “hot” blood exposed to a cooler surrounding environment so the heat radiates away from the body.
  39. Turning and padding are important in the prevention of decubitus ________.
  40. Excessive bruising could indicate skin, ________, or circulatory problems as well as physical abuse.
  41. Folliculitis presents with formations of small ________ that surround the follicle.
  42. Warts or ________ are caused by the papilloma virus, which causes a hypertrophy of the keratin cells in the skin.
  43. Cellulitis, if left untreated, can lead to life threatening conditions such as ________.
  44. A first-degree burn has damaged only the ________ layer of skin, the epidermis, and is classified as a partial-thickness burn.
  45. A fourth-degree burn goes all the way to the ________.
  46. A second-degree burn involves the entire depth of the ________ and a portion of the dermis and can cause blistering.
  47. A third-degree burn affects all three of the skin ________ and is classified as a full-thickness burn.
  48. A(n) ________ is a classic example of a first-degree burn.
  49. ________ is the term for an infestation with lice that is the result of direct contact with a person infested with lice or sharing objects that may be infested.
  50. ________ is the term for any type of hair loss, and can be acute or chronic.
  51. A(n) ________ is a pathologically altered piece of tissue that can include a wound or injury of a single infected patch of skin.
  52. ________ or hives are itchy wheals surrounded by a red inflamed area.

True/False

Write ‘T’ if the statement is true and ‘F’ if the statement is false.

____ 1.    ‑The stratum basale is the outermost surface of the skin.

____ 2.    Carotene gives a bluish hue to the skin.

____ 3.    ‑Second degree burns involve the entire depth of the epidermis and a portion of the dermis.

____ 4.    ‑First degree burns affect all three of the skin layers.

____ 5.    ‑Each upper limb is considered 9% of the body skin surface area.

____ 6.    Keratinization softens cells.

____ 7.    ‑The part of the hair that you see outside the body is the follicle.

____ 8.    ‑The white, half-moon shaped area of your finger nail is called the cuticle.

____ 9.    An infected blackhead is a pustule.

____10.   ‑As your temperature rises during activity, your body signals blood vessels to constrict.

____11.   ‑Muscles in your skin are called arrector pili.

____12.   ‑The most dangerous type of skin cancer is basal cell carcinoma.

____13.   A polyp is a small tumor with a stem.

____14.   ‑A vesicle is a small, fluid-filled, raised spot on the surface of the skin.

____15.   ‑Eczema is a disorder that results primarily from an allergic reaction.

Essay

Write your answer in the space provided or on a separate sheet of paper.

  1. Distinguish between first, second and third degree burns.

____________________________________________

____________________________________________

____________________________________________

____________________________________________

  1. Explain the journey of an epidermal cell from birth to death.

____________________________________________

____________________________________________

____________________________________________

____________________________________________

  1. Describe how transdermal medication works.

____________________________________________

____________________________________________

____________________________________________

____________________________________________

  1. How do we assess peripheral perfusion?

____________________________________________

____________________________________________

____________________________________________

____________________________________________

  1. How is hair used in forensics?

____________________________________________

____________________________________________

____________________________________________

____________________________________________

Chapter 9

Multiple Choice

Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.

  1. The part of the nervous system which is located outside the brain and spinal cord is called the ____________ system.
  2. Endocrine
  3. Central nervous
  4. Sensory
  5. Peripheral nervous
  6. The autonomic system is divided into which two systems?
  7. Somatic, autonomic
  8. Sympathetic, parasympathetic
  9. Motor, sensory
  10. Input, output
  11. Myelin is a lipid insulation produced by the ________.
  12. Microglia
  13. Oligodendrocytes
  14. Astrocytes
  15. Ependymal cells
  16. Which part of the neuron is responsible for cell metabolism?
  17. Body
  18. Dendrite
  19. Axon
  20. Synapse
  21. Neurons with the ability to monitor the environment are called ____________ neurons.
  22. Accessory
  23. Motor
  24. Sensory
  25. Output
  26. Neurons are able to generate tiny electrical currents by changing the ____________ of their membranes.
  27. Composition
  28. Shape
  29. Pathway
  30. Permeability
  31. If a cell is more positively charged than it is when resting, it is said to be ________.
  32. Refractory
  33. Repolarized
  34. Depolarized
  35. Polarized
  36. A cell which is more negatively charged than at rest is ________.
  37. Polarized
  38. Hyperpolarized
  39. Depolarized
  40. Refractory
  41. Impulses are conducted rapidly if ____________ is present.
  42. Calcium
  43. Sodium
  44. Myelin
  45. Spinal fluid
  46. Which of the following is a medical disorder in which the myelin in the CNS has been destroyed ________.
  47. Multiple sclerosis
  48. Muscular dystrophy
  49. Guillain-Barré’ syndrome
  50. Myasthenia gravis
  51. The nerves going to the upper limbs join the spinal cord at the ____________ region.
  52. Cervical
  53. Thoracic
  54. Lumbar
  55. Sacral
  56. The third, innermost layer of the meninges is called the ________.
  57. Dura mater
  58. Arachnoid mater
  59. Pia mater
  60. Epidural mater
  61. Medication is often injected into the ____________ space to alleviate pain.
  62. Vertebral
  63. Epidural
  64. Subdural
  65. Subarachnoid
  66. Which part of the spinal cord carries sensory information?
  67. Commissure
  68. Ventral root
  69. Column
  70. Dorsal root
  71. Which spinal cord tracts carry sensory information?
  72. Superficial
  73. Ventral
  74. Ascending
  75. Inferior
  76. Acute treatment for spinal cord injury includes ________.
  77. Ice
  78. Heat
  79. Immobilization
  80. Physical therapy
  81. Which of the following is not one of the three broad categories of causes in peripheral neuropathy?
  82. Trauma
  83. Paralysis
  84. Systemic
  85. Infection/autoimmune
  86. A quadriplegic with damage high in the cervical spinal cord may have a paralyzed diaphragm, such that the patient cannot ________ on his own.
  87. Breathe
  88. Swallow food
  89. Close their eyes
  90. Speak
  91. The autonomic nervous system is a subdivision of the ________.
  92. Central nervous system
  93. Sympathetic nervous system
  94. Peripheral nervous system
  95. Parasympathetic nervous system
  96. Dendrites ________.
  97. Are usually highly branched
  98. Carry impulses away from the cell body
  99. Are usually surrounded by myelin
  100. All of the above
  101. Sensory neurons are also called ________.
  102. Interneurons
  103. Input neurons
  104. Output neurons
  105. Glia cells
  106. Neurons that carry information between neurons are called ________.
  107. Interneurons
  108. Efferent neurons
  109. Motor neurons
  110. Afferent neurons
  111. This type of glia cell produces myelin for cells in the brain ________.
  112. Microglia
  113. Oligodendrocytes
  114. Astrocytes
  115. Interneurons
  116. Inflammation of the membranes covering the brain and spinal cord is called ________.
  117. Encephalitis
  118. Meningitis
  119. Blepharitis
  120. Polyneuritis
  121. This type of glia cell attacks microbes and removes debris.
  122. Microglia
  123. Oligodendrocyte
  124. Astroglia
  125. Neurilemma
  126. Which of the following statements is not true of multiple sclerosis?
  127. It is considered a myelin disorder.
  128. Patients may have disturbances in vision, balance, speech, or movement.
  129. Most patients are initially diagnosed with relapsing-remitting MS, but at least 50% of them will progress to the chronic progressive form.
  130. It affects 2,000–4,000 people in the United States.
  131. When a cell becomes stimulated (excited) ________.
  132. The interior of the neuron becomes more negative
  133. Sodium gates in the cell membrane close
  134. Sodium gates in the cell membrane spring open
  135. The entire neuron remains at rest
  136. The outermost of the meninges is the ________.
  137. Pia mater
  138. Choroid plexus
  139. Arachnoid mater
  140. Dura mater
  141. Loss of motor and sensory control of the trunk of the body and lower extremities as a result of a spinal cord injury describes __________.
  142. Peripheral neuropathy
  143. Quadriplegia
  144. Paraplegia
  145. A slipped disk
  146. This disease is characterized by ascending paralysis ________.
  147. Myasthenia gravis
  148. Polio
  149. Guillain Barré syndrome
  150. Charcot Marie Tooth disorder
  151. This disease is characterized by progressive fluctuating muscle weakness starting in the facial or eye muscles ________.
  152. Myasthenia gravis
  153. Polio
  154. Guillain Barré syndrome
  155. Charcot Marie Tooth disorder
  156. Patients who have an injury to their cervical spinal cord segment and are paralyzed in all four limbs are known as ________.
  157. Paraplegics
  158. Quadriplegics
  159. Suffering from Guillain Barré syndrome
  160. None of the above
  161. Patients with injuries to the thoracic spinal cord segment with two paralyzed legs are said to be ________.
  162. Paraplegics
  163. Quadriplegics
  164. Suffering from Guillain Barré syndrome
  165. None of the above
  166. A potentially fatal condition is an infection of the meninges called ________.
  167. Polio
  168. Meningectomy
  169. Meningitis
  170. All of the above
  171. This inflammatory condition is a result of repetitive motion and leads to numbness in the palm and fingers ________.
  172. carpal tunnel syndrome
  173. meningitis
  174. myasthenia gravis
  175. botulism
  176. An injection of a local anesthetic into the spinal column is called a(n) ________.
  177. epiphysis
  178. epidural
  179. subdural
  180. cutaneous
  181. Spinal root directional terms are ________:
  182. anterior and posterior
  183. superior and inferior
  184. Dorsal and ventral
  185. distal and proximal

Short Answer

Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question.

  1. The ____________ or parasympathetic branch of the nervous system deals with maintenance of homeostasis.
  2. The glial cells which remove debris are called ____________.
  3. The ___________ horn contains motor neurons.
  4. There are twelve pairs of ________ nerves.
  5. The spinal ____________, projecting from both sides of the spinal cord in pairs, fuse to form spinal nerves.
  6. Branches and recombinations of nerves are called ____________.
  7. ____________ are the simplest form of motor output.
  8. During ______________ of the action potential, sodium ions are flowing into a cell.
  9. The ________________ tract carries pain and temperature information.
  10. The input side of the nervous system is known as ____________.
  11. The period when a cell is unable to accept another stimulus is the ____________ period.
  12. Bare spots between adjacent cells are called nodes of ____________.
  13. Tiny sacs at nerve terminals, called ____________, release contents from the cell when calcium flows in.
  14. ____________ inhibit the release of pain neurotransmitters.
  15. The membrane that is like a spider web is called ____________.
  16. The lipid ________ increases action potential conduction speed.
  17. Guillain-Barré syndrome is a rapid onset paralysis caused by inflammation of ________ nerves.
  18. Repetitive motion can cause ________ syndrome in the wrists.
  19. A(n) ________ is a group of nerve cell bodies outside the CNS.
  20. Preganglionic neurons release the neurotransmitter ________ (Do not use the abbreviation).
  21. Following a spinal cord injury, the difference between being able to breathe on your own or requiring a(n) ________ is literally a matter of centimeters.
  22. Bruises to the spinal cord may resolve with time and rehabilitation, but a severed, or crushed spinal cord is usually a(n) ________ injury.
  23. A very common form of peripheral neuropathy caused by repetitive motion is ________.
  24. Epidural injections of steroids are sometimes prescribed for patients with chronic lower back injuries to relieve pain, and ________.
  25. The most common systemic disorder that causes peripheral neuropathy is ________.
  26. The whole series of permeability changes within the cell and the resultant changes in charge across the cell membrane is called the ________.
  27. Between adjacent glial cells on axons are tiny bare spots called ________.
  28. The neurotransmitter group ________ inhibit release of pain neurotransmitters.
  29. The ________ is located in a hollow tube running inside the vertebral column from the foramen magnum to the second lumbar (L2) vertebrae.
  30. ________ is caused by an autoimmune attack on the myelin in the central nervous system.
  31. Guillain Barré syndrome is the autoimmune destruction of the ________ nervous system myelin and often occurs after a viral infection.
  32. ________ is an autoimmune attack of the acetylcholine receptor at the neuromuscular junction.
  33. ________ is caused by destruction of ventral horn motor neurons by poliomyelitis virus.
  34. ________ is usually mechanical injury to spinal cord tissue.
  35. ________ damage to peripheral nerves may be due to injury or illness.

True/False

Write ‘T’ if the statement is true and ‘F’ if the statement is false.

____ 1.    ‑The autonomic system controls voluntary movement.

____ 2.    Oligodendrocytes make myelin.

____ 3.    ‑Potassium ions move across neurons during depolarization.

____ 4.    There are eight cervical nerves.

____ 5.    ‑The segments of the spinal cord are named for their function.

____ 6.    Guillain-Barré’ syndrome is incurable.

____ 7.    ‑SSRIs prevent the clean up of a neurotransmitter.

____ 8.    ‑The peripheral nervous system is everything outside the brain and spinal cord.

____ 9.    ‑Myasthenia gravis is an autoimmune disorder in which the immune system attacks and destroys acetylcholine receptors.

____10.   ‑A synapse is a junction between two nodes of Ranvier.

____11.   ‑Electrical synapses use neurotransmitters to send information to other cells.

____12.   ‑Dendrites generate and send signals to other cells.

____13.   Action potentials are “all or none.”

____14.   Cell bodies are myelinated.

____15.   Myelinated axons are white.

Essay

Write your answer in the space provided or on a separate sheet of paper.

  1. Explain how multiple sclerosis affects the body.

____________________________________________

____________________________________________

____________________________________________

____________________________________________

  1. List the steps in chemical synaptic transmission.

____________________________________________

____________________________________________

____________________________________________

____________________________________________

  1. Define the purpose of the following cells: microglia, oligodendrocytes, astrocytes, Schwann cells, and ependymal cells.

____________________________________________

____________________________________________

____________________________________________

____________________________________________

  1. List the three phases of the action potential.

____________________________________________

____________________________________________

____________________________________________

____________________________________________

  1. List the meninges and explain their anatomy.

____________________________________________

____________________________________________

____________________________________________

Chapter 10

Multiple Choice

Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.

  1. What is the largest part of the brain?
  2. Cerebellum
  3. Cerebrum
  4. Brain stem
  5. Hypothalamus
  6. The grooves and ridges of the brain are known as ____________.
  7. Hemispheres
  8. Lobes
  9. Convolutions
  10. Meninges
  11. Heart beat, breathing, and the cardiovascular system are controlled by the ____________.
  12. Medulla oblongata
  13. Midbrain
  14. Cerebellum
  15. Cerebrum
  16. The internal anatomy of the brain has which structure?
  17. White matter only
  18. White matter surrounded by gray matter
  19. Gray matter only
  20. Gray matter surrounded by white matter
  21. The right and left hemisphere of the cerebrum are connected by the ____________.
  22. Postcentral gyrus
  23. Precentral gyrus
  24. Corpus callosum
  25. Ventricles
  26. Which structure in the diencephalon relays information to the cerebrum?
  27. Thalamus
  28. Hypothalamus
  29. Pineal body
  30. Pituitary gland
  31. What cranial nerve is chiefly responsible for eye movements?
  32. Olfactory
  33. Facial
  34. Hypoglossal
  35. Oculomotor
  36. What number cranial nerve is the vagus nerve?
  37. X
  38. II
  39. VIII
  40. XII
  41. To what sense does somatic sensation refer?
  42. Taste
  43. Touch
  44. Smell
  45. Vision
  46. Which tract carries fine touch and vibration to the cerebral cortex?
  47. Dorsal column tract
  48. Spinothalamic tract
  49. Spinocerebellar tract
  50. Ventral column tract
  51. Once touch information is sent to the brain, understanding will occur in the ____________ area.
  52. Sensory association relay
  53. Ganglionic association
  54. Somatic sensory cortex
  55. Somatic sensory association
  56. After a plan for movement has been developed, it leaves the ____________ and connects with neurons in the thalamus.
  57. Nuclei
  58. Limbic system
  59. Motor cortex
  60. Spinal tract
  61. Where are the neurons for the autonomic system located?
  62. Corpus callosum
  63. Spinal cord and brain stem
  64. Cerebral cortex
  65. Inside neurotransmitters
  66. A woman falls down a flight of stairs carrying a large box. She is admitted to the hospital paralyzed on the right side and unable to speak. Where is her injury?
  67. Spinal cord
  68. Temporal lobe
  69. Frontal lobe
  70. Brainstem
  71. During surgery, general anesthesia inhibits the ____________, causing unconsciousness in the patient.
  72. Reticular system
  73. Basal nuclei
  74. Limbic system
  75. Hypothalamus
  76. Which of these is a type of paralysis?
  77. Spastic
  78. Bivalvular
  79. Reflexive
  80. Radical
  81. Some patients with a severe case of ________ must be kept on a ventilator until the paralysis resolves.
  82. Guillain Barré syndrome
  83. Muscular dystrophy
  84. Multiple sclerosis
  85. Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis
  86. A subdural hematoma would be between the ________.
  87. Arachnoid mater and subarachnoid
  88. Dura mater and the arachnoid mater
  89. Dura and vertebral column
  90. Arachnoid and pia mater
  91. A brain injury with swelling and bleeding with possible severe hemorrhaging (hematoma) is known as a ________.
  92. Concussion
  93. Contusion
  94. TIA
  95. CVA
  96. Which of the following statements is not true of the cerebellum?
  97. It is considered the “little brain.”
  98. It lies under the occipital lobe of the cerebrum.
  99. It is responsible for sensory and motor coordination and balance.
  100. It helps regulate water balance and sleep cycles.
  101. The somatic nervous system carries impulses from the brain and spinal cord to ________.
  102. Cardiac muscle tissue
  103. Skeletal muscles
  104. Smooth muscles
  105. All of the above
  106. A mild brain injury is commonly known as a ________.
  107. Contusion
  108. Hemorrhage
  109. Hematoma
  110. Concussion
  111. A ________, which is swelling and bleeding at the site of injury, is more serious than a concussion.
  112. Convulsion
  113. Hemorrhage
  114. Hematoma
  115. None of the above
  116. A ________ is caused by disruption of blood flow to a portion of the brain due to either hemorrhage or blood clot.
  117. Cerebrovascular accident
  118. Stroke
  119. a and b only
  120. None of the above
  121. A mini stroke is known as a ________.
  122. TIA
  123. Transient necrotic attack
  124. Stroke
  125. a and b only
  126. A ________ is a pool of blood between any of the layers of meninges and the skull.
  127. Contusion
  128. Hemorrhage
  129. Hematoma
  130. Concussion
  131. This is the most common cause of dementia among people 65 years or older ________.
  132. Alzheimer’s disease
  133. Parkinson’s disease
  134. Dementia
  135. Travis’ disease
  136. Which fissure divides the brain into a left and right hemisphere?
  137. transverse
  138. longitudinal
  139. medial
  140. sagittal
  141. The lobe responsible for vision ________:
  142. occipital
  143. frontal
  144. parietal
  145. medial
  146. The lobe responsible for taste ________:
  147. frontal
  148. parietal
  149. temporal
  150. occipital
  151. This structure is responsible for the secretion of melatonin ________.
  152. pituitary gland
  153. thalamus
  154. hypothalamus
  155. pineal body
  156. Hydocephalus is a result of an excess of what fluid?
  157. blood
  158. CSF
  159. CNS
  160. ALS
  161. A group of nerve cell bodies outside the CNS is called a ________.
  162. ganglion
  163. glia
  164. dendrites
  165. axons
  166. The system that controls mood ________.
  167. reticular
  168. somatic
  169. sympathetic
  170. limbic
  171. A non-progressive movement disorder exhibiting classic spastic paralysis
  172. muscular dystrophy
  173. Huntington’s disease
  174. cerebral palsy
  175. CVA

Short Answer

Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question.

  1. The _______ is divided into two hemispheres.
  2. The ____________ lobes are responsible for conscious thought.
  3. Damage to the _____________ lobes leads to sensory perception problems.
  4. Heartbeat is controlled in the ____________.
  5. The size of the map of a body part in the postcentral gyrus is determined by the _____________ of the body part.
  6. Hydrocephalus is treated by medication and by inserting a(n) ____________.
  7. Cross communication between the right and left sides of the brain is through the ____________.
  8. The diencephalon includes the ____________, hypothalamus, pineal body, and pituitary gland.
  9. The pineal body secretes the hormone ____________.
  10. Dizziness is one symptom of damage to the _________________ cranial nerve.
  11. The XII cranial nerve, the ____________, is under the tongue.
  12. A(n) ____________ is a group of nerve cell bodies outside the CNS.
  13. Preganglionic neurons release the neurotransmitter ____________.
  14. A stroke is also known as a(n) ____________ (Do not use abbreviation).
  15. An accumulation of blood between the dura mater and arachnoid space is called a(n)____________.
  16. Emotions are integrated in the ________ lobes.
  17. Brain cavities are called ________.
  18. The X cranial nerve is the ________ nerve.
  19. Brain damage similar to that caused by traumatic brain injury is caused by a lack of oxygen, strokes, or brain ________.
  20. The ventricles of the brain, the central canal of the spinal cord, and the subarachnoid space, surrounding both parts of the CNS, are all filled with ________(CSF).
  21. The ________ nerve is sensory cranial nerve, responsible for hearing and balance.
  22. The ________ is an anatomical/physiologic protective structure of the brain believed to consist of walls of capillaries in the CNS and surrounding glial membranes.
  23. ________(CP) is a permanent, non-progressive set of motor deficits diagnosed in infants and young children, generally thought to be due to damage to the motor cortex.
  24. The ________ division of the autonomic nervous system controls the flight-or-fight response.
  25. ________ is a condition of excess CSF in brain due to trauma, birth defects, tumors, etc.
  26. Damage to brain tissue due to mechanical injury, lack of oxygen, or brain hemorrhage causes ________ brain injury.
  27. Risk factors for ________ include premature birth, low birth weight, developmental abnormalities, and perinatal brain injury.

True/False

Write ‘T’ if the statement is true and ‘F’ if the statement is false.

____ 1.    ‑Gyri and sulci are known as convolutions.

____ 2.    Parietal lobes are responsible for vision.

____ 3.    ‑The pons is inferior to the medulla oblongata.

____ 4.    ‑The midbrain is the most superior portion of the brainstem.

____ 5.    ‑The diencephalon controls hormone levels.

____ 6.    Thirst is regulated in the thalamus.

____ 7.    ‑Respiratory arrest is a clear sign of brain damage after a fall.

____ 8.    The optic nerve controls smell.

____ 9.    Pain is perceived in the skin.

____10.   ‑The limbic system controls emotions and moods.

____11.   ‑The parasympathetic system controls the “fight or flight” response.

____12.   ‑A brain tumor in the frontal lobe might cause significant changes in personality.

____13.   ‑Paralysis is the inability to control voluntary movement.

____14.   ‑Cerebral palsy usually begins after age 50.

____15.   Ministrokes are called “TIAs.”

Essay

Write your answer in the space provided or on a separate sheet of paper.

  1. Explain why cerebral spinal fluid balance is important in the brain.

____________________________________________

____________________________________________

____________________________________________

____________________________________________

  1. List the twelve cranial nerves.

____________________________________________

____________________________________________

____________________________________________

____________________________________________

  1. Explain how we interpret touch.

____________________________________________

____________________________________________

____________________________________________

____________________________________________

  1. Explain why hands, lips, and head have so many neurons.

____________________________________________

____________________________________________

____________________________________________

____________________________________________

  1. List five common effects of a stroke.

____________________________________________

____________________________________________

____________________________________________

____________________________________________

 

Chapter 11

Multiple Choice

Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.

  1. Which of the following is listed as one of our visceral senses?
  2. Touch
  3. Pain
  4. Hunger
  5. Heat
  6. The ____________ of the eye works similarly to the shutter of a camera.
  7. Eyelid
  8. Lens
  9. Cornea
  10. Iris
  11. Your tears act as a lubricant and ____________ to protect the eyes from microorganisms.
  12. Antiseptic
  13. Moisture
  14. Bath
  15. Glaze
  16. The cornea is found within the ____________ of the eye.
  17. Sclera
  18. Choroid
  19. Retina
  20. Conjunctiva
  21. The eye receives most of its nourishment from the vessels within the ____________.
  22. Retina
  23. Sclera
  24. Conjunctiva
  25. Choroid
  26. The vision center of the brain is located in the ____________ lobe.
  27. Optic
  28. Occipital
  29. Temporal
  30. Hypothalamus
  31. Light passes to the eye through what opening?
  32. Eyeball
  33. Lens
  34. Pupil
  35. Iris
  36. To help diagnose sleep disorders, doctors will measure which stage of sleep?
  37. REM
  38. Myopia
  39. PERLA
  40. Amblyopia
  41. What are the three tiny bones located in the middle ear?
  42. Pinnas
  43. Cerumen
  44. Ossicles
  45. Cochleas
  46. The ____________ contain sensors necessary for equilibrium.
  47. Cochlea
  48. Semicircular canals
  49. Vestibule
  50. Incus
  51. The bony labyrinth is another name for the ____________.
  52. Auditory nerve
  53. Outer ear
  54. Middle ear
  55. Inner ear
  56. The process of sound waves traveling to the brain is known as ____________ conduction.
  57. Sound
  58. Sensorineural
  59. Bone
  60. Neural
  61. ____________ is the name given for the distinct taste of glutamates.
  62. Gustatory
  63. Umami
  64. Meniere
  65. Tinnitus
  66. Tactile corpuscles is the name given to the receptors for which sense?
  67. Taste
  68. Smell
  69. Hearing
  70. Touch
  71. Experiencing pain in the right shoulder due to liver disease is an example of ____________ pain.
  72. Referred
  73. Disguised
  74. Phantom
  75. Pseudo
  76. Amblyopia develops most commonly in ________.
  77. Adults
  78. Children
  79. Patients with astigmatism
  80. The elderly
  81. A patient who has itching in the ears due to a buildup of ear wax could be said to have too much ________.
  82. Cerumen
  83. Fluid
  84. Eustachian
  85. Cochlea
  86. Clouding of the eye lens caused by protein clumping is called ________.
  87. Blepharitis
  88. A cataract
  89. Clouding
  90. Astigmatism
  91. Receptors of the ________ senses receive the signal of nausea.
  92. Visceral
  93. Cutaneous
  94. Accommodation
  95. Labyrinthitis
  96. Cataract formation is attributed to all of these except ________.
  97. Aging
  98. Gender
  99. Congenital defects
  100. Trauma
  101. In diabetic retinopathy, increased blood sugar damages the ________ in the retina of the eye.
  102. Sclera
  103. Lens
  104. Conjunctiva
  105. Blood vessels
  106. All of the following are symptoms of otitis media except ________.
  107. Sinus infection
  108. Pus
  109. Edema
  110. Pain
  111. Sight can be considered ________.
  112. A general sense
  113. A special sense
  114. A chemoreceptor
  115. Both b and c
  116. Which of the following is not associated with the retina?
  117. Rods
  118. Lens
  119. Cones
  120. Photopigments
  121. The external ear ends at the ________.
  122. Auricle
  123. Tympanic membrane
  124. External auditory canal
  125. Tragus
  126. Which of the following is not a bone of the middle ear?
  127. Cochlea
  128. Stapes
  129. Incus
  130. Malleus
  131. Which of the following structures in the inner ear is the organ of hearing?
  132. Bony labyrinth
  133. Semicircular canal
  134. Vestibule
  135. Cochlea
  136. A defect of the ________ results in difficulty in visual detection of color and fine detail.
  137. Lens
  138. Cones
  139. Rods
  140. Cones and rods
  141. The sense of touch can be considered ________.
  142. A general sense
  143. A special sense
  144. A chemoreceptor
  145. Both b and c
  146. Receptors used to locate body parts are considered ________.
  147. A special sense
  148. A chemoreceptor
  149. A thermoreceptor
  150. A proprioceptor
  151. Which of the following is not one of the three layers of tissue that forms the eyeball?
  152. Conjunctiva
  153. Sclera
  154. Choroid
  155. Retina
  156. The sensor receptive cells in the retina that function best in dim light and enable night vision are the ________.
  157. Iris
  158. Pupil
  159. Rods
  160. Cones
  161. An inflammation of the thin, transparent membrane covering the visible portion of the sclera and lining the inside of the eyelids results in ________.
  162. Conjunctivitis
  163. Choroiditis
  164. Cornea abrasion
  165. Lens distortion
  166. A cloudy or opaque area in the normally clear lens of the eye is called a ________.
  167. Stye
  168. Detachment
  169. Cataract
  170. None of the above
  171. Vision impairment as a result of old age and the loss of elasticity in the lens is called ________.
  172. Astigmatism
  173. Myopia
  174. Presbyopia
  175. Diplopia
  176. A chronic disease of the inner ear marked by a recurring syndrome of vertigo, tinnitus, and progressive hearing loss is called ________.
  177. Cholesteatoma
  178. Otosclerosis
  179. Meniere’s disease
  180. Mastoiditis
  181. Which of the following is attributed to the development of cataracts?
  182. Trauma
  183. Congenital defects
  184. Aging
  185. All of the above
  186. If left untreated, cataracts can lead to what?
  187. Blindness
  188. Presbyopia
  189. Myopia
  190. Hyperopia
  191. Farsightedness is also known as ________.
  192. Hyperopia
  193. Myopia
  194. Presbyopia
  195. Amblyopia
  196. Farsightedness that is due to the aging process is known as ________.
  197. Hyperopia
  198. Myopia
  199. Presbyopia
  200. Amblyopia
  201. Nearsightedness is also known as ________.
  202. Hyperopia
  203. Myopia
  204. Presbyopia
  205. Amblyopia
  206. Lazy eye is also known as ________.
  207. Hyperopia
  208. Myopia
  209. Presbyopia
  210. Amblyopia
  211. Swimmer’s ear is also known as ________.
  212. External otitis
  213. Otitis Media
  214. Internal otitis
  215. None of the above
  216. Symptoms of otitis media include all of the following except ________.
  217. Pus
  218. Arthralgia
  219. Edema
  220. Pain
  221. A feeling of dizziness and or whirling in space is called ________.
  222. Vertigo
  223. Purulence
  224. Eczema
  225. Tinnitus
  226. Ringing in the ears is also known as ________.
  227. Vertigo
  228. Purulence
  229. Eczema
  230. Tinnitus

Short Answer

Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question.

  1. Skin is the location of receptors for your sense of _________________.
  2. The ____________ is the colored part of the eye.
  3. The vitreous humor is in the ____________ chamber of the eye.
  4. The globe-shaped organ of vision is the ____________.
  5. The ____________ is the opening through which light passes into the eye.
  6. ____________ is a disease characterized by increased pressure in the eye.
  7. The _______________ contains light-sensitive neurons.
  8. Lazy eye is called ____________.
  9. The signals from the eye are carried on the cranial nerve known as __________________.
  10. Pink eye is called ____________.
  11. What you perceive as taste is mainly affected by the sense of ____________________.
  12. The bones of the middle ear are the malleus, incus, and ____________.
  13. The ____________ or auricle is the external part of the ear.
  14. The eardrum is also called the ____________ membrane.
  15. The tubes that connect the middle ear to the pharynx are called ____________ tubes.
  16. Nearsightedness is called ________.
  17. If the eye cannot focus on nearby objects, the condition is called ________ or hyperopia.
  18. A clouded lens is called a(n)________.
  19. There are times when an optometrist needs to dilate the pupils for better ________ of inner eye parts during the exam.
  20. Acute conjunctivitis is commonly called ________ aureus.
  21. In glaucoma, peripheral vision is reduced, which eventually progresses to ________ vision and then blindness.
  22. Otitis media can perforate the ________ membrane (eardrum).
  23. Labyrinthitis is an inflammation of the ________ ear and is usually caused by infections and can cause vertigo.
  24. Hyperopia is when the eye cannot focus properly on ________ objects.
  25. Tinnitus can occur as a result of chronic exposure to loud ________.
  26. The ________ or colored part of the eye helps regulate the amount of light that enters the eye.
  27. The projecting part of the ear which collects and directs sound waves into the auditory canal is called the pinna or ________.
  28. ________ (farsightedness) occurs when the eye cannot focus properly on nearby objects.
  29. The ________ begins in the inner ear and carries the amplified vibrations from the tympanic ossicles.
  30. Continued sensory stimulation causes some sensors to desensitize in an interesting phenomenon called ________.
  31. Pain receptors are also called ________.
  32. Pain is felt for as long as the stimulus is there that is c.ausing it or unless a person is under ________.
  33. The ________ glands produce tears, spread over the eye surfaces by blinking, which are needed for constant cleansing and ­lubrication.
  34. The sclera contains a specialized portion called the ________, which is transparent to allow light rays to pass into the eye.
  35. ________ is caused by increased pressure in the fluid of the eye, which interferes with optic nerve functioning.
  36. ________ is an inflammation of the membrane that lines the eye characterized by pink or red swollen eyes.
  37. The acute infective phase of conjunctivitis is commonly called ________.
  38. A(n) ________ is a condition in which the lens loses its flexibility and transparency and light cannot pass through the clouded lens.
  39. ________ is caused by increased pressure in the fluid of the eye, which interferes with optic nerve functioning.
  40. ________ is an acute infection of the middle ear, commonly caused by a bacteria or virus, and is frequently found in infants and young children.
  41. ________ is frequently associated with an upper respiratory infection such as the common cold.
  42. If left untreated, otitis media can cause a perforation of the ________ or eardrum.
  43. ________ is an inflammation of the inner ear and is usually caused by infections.
  44. ________ is a chronic condition that affects the labyrinth and leads to progressive hearing loss and vertigo.
  45. ________ can be either partial or complete and is caused by a variety of conditions, ranging from inflammation and scarring of the tympanic membrane to auditory nerve and brain damage.
  46. Clinically, ________ can occur as a result of chronic exposure to loud noises, Meniere’s disease, some medications, wax build-up, or various disturbances to the auditory nerve.

True/False

Write ‘T’ if the statement is true and ‘F’ if the statement is false.

____ 1.    The malleus is the outer ear.

____ 2.    The sense of smell is called gustatory.

____ 3.    ‑Sound is transmitted to the brain by hair cells.

____ 4.    ‑The signal is carried from the ear to the brain by the optic nerve.

____ 5.    ‑Bacteria from the nasal cavity can travel to the ear.

____ 6.    Lacrimal glands are endocrine glands.

____ 7.    ‑Tears act as an antiseptic to decrease germs in the eyeball.

____ 8.    The vitreous humor is watery.

____ 9.    Rods are active in dim light.

____10.   ‑Photopigments undergo chemical changes when light hits them.

____11.   ‑The innermost layer of the eye is the cornea.

____12.   ‑Ciliary muscles surround the lens in the eye.

____13.   The lens is located behind the pupil.

____14.   ‑PERLA stands for pupils, equal, rotating to the light, and accommodating.

____15.   REM sleep refers to rapid eye movement.

Essay

Write your answer in the space provided or on a separate sheet of paper.

  1. List the five senses and their organs.

____________________________________________

____________________________________________

____________________________________________

____________________________________________

  1. Describe how your eye is like a camera.

____________________________________________

____________________________________________

____________________________________________

____________________________________________

  1. Follow the path of sound from air to the brain.

____________________________________________

____________________________________________

____________________________________________

____________________________________________

  1. Describe why children get otitis media.

____________________________________________

____________________________________________

____________________________________________

____________________________________________

  1. Describe referred and phantom pain.

____________________________________________

____________________________________________

____________________________________________

____________________________________________

Chapter 12

Multiple Choice

Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.

  1. Which of the endocrine organs can effectively control the pituitary gland?
  2. Pancreas
  3. Hypothalamus
  4. Thyroid
  5. Pineal
  6. Chemical messengers released directly into the bloodstream, with the ability to affect cells for hours or days, are called ________.
  7. Neurotransmitters
  8. Dendrites
  9. Hormones
  10. Sensory cells
  11. A specific type of hormone, called ____________, has the ability to interact directly with the cell’s DNA.
  12. Adrenaline
  13. Protein
  14. Sebum
  15. Steroids
  16. A standard level, known as the ____________, is necessary to maintain the body’s homeostasis.
  17. Set point
  18. Target level
  19. Norm
  20. Quotient
  21. When a patient is experiencing a fever, the ____________ resets the body’s temperature set point.
  22. Brain
  23. Hypothalamus
  24. Adrenal gland
  25. Pituitary gland
  26. Which of the following hormones are directly controlled by the nervous system?
  27. Oxytocin
  28. Cortisol
  29. Epinephrine
  30. Insulin
  31. One way in which the body will cope with increased stress is to increase the secretion of
  32. Cortisol
  33. Norepinephrine
  34. Oxytocin
  35. Prolactin
  36. Which hormone, produced by the pituitary gland, is responsible for decreased urination?
  37. Prolactin
  38. Antidiuretic hormone
  39. Adrenocorticotropic hormone
  40. Luteinizing hormone
  41. The ____________ is part of the diencephalon and is commonly called the “master gland.”
  42. Adrenal
  43. Pineal
  44. Thyroid
  45. Pituitary
  46. The ____________ is divided into a posterior and anterior segment.
  47. Thyroid
  48. Thymus
  49. Pituitary
  50. Adrenal
  51. A stature disorder in which the body produces either too much or too little growth hormone is a disorder of which endocrine gland?
  52. Anterior pituitary
  53. Posterior pituitary
  54. Adrenal medulla
  55. Adrenal cortex
  56. Thyroxin and triiodothyronine, hormones necessary for cell metabolism, are produced in the ____________ gland.
  57. Pituitary
  58. Adrenal
  59. Thymus
  60. Thyroid
  61. ____________ gland is important in regulating the blood glucose.
  62. Thymus
  63. Pancreas
  64. Pineal
  65. Thyroid
  66. The ____________ glands are located above each kidney.
  67. Thyroid
  68. Adrenal
  69. Pineal
  70. Ovaries
  71. What is the name of the condition in which the body is not producing adequate amounts of insulin?
  72. Diabetes mellitus
  73. Diabetes insipidus
  74. Dwarfism
  75. Hyperthyroidism
  76. ________ steroids are a class of molecules that cause an increase in muscle mass.
  77. Anti-inflammatory
  78. Anabolic
  79. NSAIDs
  80. Metabolic
  81. Cushings’ disease causes weight ________ and Graves’ causes weight ________.
  82. Gain, loss
  83. Loss, loss
  84. Loss, gain
  85. Gain, gain
  86. The release of norepinephrine and epinephrine into the blood stream increases all of these except ________.
  87. Respiration
  88. Saliva
  89. Pulse or heart rate
  90. Blood pressure
  91. Prednisone can be used as an anti-inflammatory drug to treat ________.
  92. Severe allergies
  93. Rheumatoid arthritis
  94. Other chronic conditions
  95. All of the above
  96. The typical onset of type I diabetes is before ________.
  97. Puberty
  98. Age 40
  99. Age 5–6
  100. Age 10
  101. A woman is in labor but the uterine contractions stop. This could be caused by insufficient ________ (a hormone).
  102. Oxytocin
  103. ADH
  104. Pituitary hormone
  105. Melatonin
  106. A deficiency in the release of vasopressin (antidiuretic hormone [ADH]) by the posterior pituitary gland causes ________.
  107. Hypoglycemia
  108. Dwarfism
  109. Diabetes insipidus
  110. None of the above
  111. Treatment of diabetes mellitus includes ________.
  112. A controlled diet and exercise
  113. Insulin administration if needed
  114. Blood and urine testing
  115. All of the above
  116. Hypersecretion of GH that causes overgrowth of the hands and feet, abnormal thickening of the bones of the face, and excessive overgrowth of soft tissue, occurring in adulthood, is called ________.
  117. Acromegaly
  118. Gigantism
  119. Dwarfism
  120. All of the above
  121. Damage to the pituitary gland, which causes hypopituitarism, can result from ________.
  122. Radiation
  123. Surgical removal
  124. Tumors
  125. All of the above
  126. The master gland of the endocrine system is the ________.
  127. Thyroid gland
  128. Pituitary gland
  129. Adrenal gland
  130. None of the above
  131. Insulin and glucagon are produced by the ________.
  132. Pancreas
  133. Thymus
  134. Adrenal cortex
  135. None of the above
  136. Hypersecretion of cortisol causes ________.
  137. Addison’s disease
  138. Cushing’s syndrome
  139. Myxedema
  140. None of the above
  141. Insufficient secretion of PTH by the parathyroid gland is called ________.
  142. Hyperpituitarism
  143. Hypoparathyroidism
  144. Hyperparathyroidism
  145. Hypopituitarism
  146. The syndrome caused by hypersecretion of the adrenal cortex, which results in excessive circulating cortisol levels, fatigue, muscular weakness, and changes in body appearance is called ________.
  147. Cushing’s syndrome
  148. Hashimoto thyroiditis
  149. Addison’s disease
  150. None of the above
  151. Which of the following statements is not true of the endocrine system?
  152. The organs of the endocrine system are widely dispersed in the body.
  153. All organs in the endocrine system are glands.
  154. Endocrine glands secrete their products into ducts leading to body cavities.
  155. Endocrine glands produce hormones.
  156. Dwarfism can be caused by a ________.
  157. Hypersecretion of ACTH
  158. Hyposecretion of ACTH
  159. Hypersecretion of growth hormone
  160. Hyposecretion of growth hormone
  161. Which of the following is not true of oxytocin?
  162. It is produced in the thyroid gland.
  163. It causes the contractions of the uterus during labor.
  164. It is one of the few hormones that is regulated by a positive feedback loop.
  165. It stimulates “milk letdown” in nursing mothers.
  166. Which of the following is true of the adrenal medulla?
  167. It responds to stimuli from the sympathetic nervous system.
  168. It helps produce the “fight-or-flight” response.
  169. It releases epinephrine.
  170. All of the above are true of the adrenal medulla.
  171. Which of the following is not true of the thymus gland?
  172. It is located in the neck.
  173. It is an endocrine gland.
  174. It produces thymosin.
  175. It is important in the body’s immune system.
  176. Which of the following is not true of the pineal gland?
  177. It is located in the brain.
  178. It produces melatonin.
  179. It helps regulate the body’s “biological clock.”
  180. All of the above are true of the pineal gland.
  181. A condition that is characterized by the production of large amounts of very dilute urine is called?
  182. Diabetes insipidus
  183. Diabetes mellitus
  184. Gestational diabetes
  185. Juvenile diabetes
  186. A condition that is characterized by a decrease in pituitary function caused by tumors, surgery, radiation, or head injury is called ________.
  187. Hyperpituitarism
  188. Cushing’s syndrome
  189. Hypopituitarism
  190. Addison’s disease
  191. Which of the following hormones are not affected by hypopituitarism?
  192. ACTH
  193. LH
  194. GH
  195. Oxytocin
  196. An overproduction of pituitary hormones is called ________.
  197. Cushing’s syndrome
  198. Addison’s disease
  199. Hyperpituitarism
  200. Hypopituitarism
  201. An over-production of cortisol causes ________.
  202. Cushing’s syndrome
  203. Addison’s disease
  204. Graves’ disease
  205. Hyperpituitarism
  206. All of the following are symptoms of Cushing’s syndrome except ________.
  207. Upper body obesity
  208. Round face
  209. Easy bruising
  210. Hypoglycemia
  211. Fatigue, feeling cold, dry skin, brittle nails, and leg cramps are all symptoms of which disease?
  212. Hyperthyroidism
  213. Hypothyroidism
  214. Addison’s disease
  215. Cushing’s syndrome
  216. Sweating, muscle tremors, tachycardia, and irritability are symptoms of which disease?
  217. Hyperthyroidism
  218. Hypothyroidism
  219. Addison’s disease
  220. Cushing’s syndrome
  221. Which of the following is an early symptom of hypoglycemia?
  222. Nervousness
  223. Weakness
  224. Difficulty speaking
  225. All of the above
  226. Symptoms of Addison’s disease include all of the following except ________.
  227. Low blood pressure
  228. High blood pressure
  229. Weight loss
  230. Excessive skin pigmentation
  231. In children, failure to attain normal height or abnormally slow growth are symptoms of ________.
  232. Gigantism
  233. Dwarfism
  234. Type II diabetes
  235. None of the above

Short Answer

Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question.

  1. The liver breaks down glycogen into ____________.
  2. If a diabetic checks her blood sugar and is ________ she should take some sugar.
  3. ____________ hormone stimulates tissue growth.
  4. The pancreas secretes insulin and ____________.
  5. A patient experiences agitation, increased heart rate and blood pressure. She thinks she is going insane. She has a hormone imbalance called _____________________.
  6. Chemical messengers released by endocrine glands are called ____________.
  7. ____________ moves calcium into bones.
  8. ____________ feedback increases the magnitude of change.
  9. The ideal value for a body characteristic is called a(n) ____________.
  10. If a person is dehydrated they will secrete less ________________ hormone from the posterior pituitary.
  11. ____________ hormone stimulates sperm production.
  12. Uterine contractions are increased by the hormone ____________.
  13. The ____________ gland is located in the upper thorax.
  14. The ___________________ secretes several vital steroid hormones.
  15. The ____________ within the brain controls hormone levels, but is not called the master gland.
  16. ________ mellitus is due to a decrease in insulin secretion or decreased sensitivity to insulin.
  17. The ________ gland secretes thyroxine.
  18. ________ tissue uses glucose from blood to form fat.
  19. Addison’s disease is caused by insufficient production of ________ corticosteroids.
  20. Appropriate blood glucose levels are vital for cellular ________.
  21. If GH secretion is insufficient during childhood, children do not grow to the standard height. This is a type of ________.
  22. If stress becomes chronic, the secretion of ________ and cortisol, becomes pathological.
  23. Hypopituitarism causes loss of any or all anterior ________ hormones, including ACTH, GH, LH, and TSH, causing a variety of symptoms.
  24. Stature disorders result in well-below average height (called ________ ) or well-above normal height (called gigantism).
  25. Cushing’s syndrome is caused by over-secretion of ________.
  26. The adrenal cortex makes dozens of steroid hormones known collectively as ________.
  27. Glucagon puts glucose into the bloodstream mainly by directing the liver to release ­glucose stored in the form of ________.
  28. The ________ is largely responsible for maintaining blood sugar (glucose) levels at or near a set point.
  29. The adrenal glands are split into two regions: the adrenal cortex, an outer layer, and the ________, the middle of the gland.
  30. ________ triggers our sleep by peaking at night and causing drowsiness.
  31. The ________ gland, located in the anterior portion of your neck, is responsible for secreting the hormones thyroxine (T4) and triiodothyronine (T3), under orders from the pituitary gland
  32. If any of the body’s dozens of homeostatic values become seriously disrupted, the control systems work to bring them back to set point. This process is called ________.
  33. One special class of hormones, ________, is particularly powerful because they can bind to sites inside cells by passing easily through the target cell membrane.
  34. The male gonad is responsible for secreting the hormone ________.
  35. ________, the most common cause of hyperthyroidism, is also an autoimmune disorder.
  36. Hypopituitarism is characterized by the loss of any or all ________ pituitary hormones.
  37. Stature disorders that result in well-below-average height are called ________.
  38. Oversecretion of growth hormone (GH) in adults, after bones have stopped growing, causes ________.
  39. The most common cause of hypothyroidism is ________.
  40. A common symptom of hyperthyroidism is ________.
  41. A(n) ________ is the enlargement of the thyroid and can be the result of either hypothyroidism or hyperthyroidism.
  42. ________ is the primary side effect of insulin therapy.
  43. ________ is caused by insufficient production of adrenal corticosteroids.
  44. ________ causes excess cortisol in response to stressors.
  45. ________ levels are increased during periods of stress.
  46. Chronic stress causes both physiological and ________ changes.

True/False

Write ‘T’ if the statement is true and ‘F’ if the statement is false.

____ 1.    Sweat glands are endocrine glands.

____ 2.    ‑Melatonin is released by the pineal gland.

____ 3.    Ovaries secrete estrogen.

____ 4.    Glucagon lowers blood sugar.

____ 5.    ‑Hormonal targets are distant from secretion in the endocrine system.

____ 6.    ‑Follicle Stimulating Hormone is secreted in the ovaries.

____ 7.    Cortisol is secreted by the adrenal gland.

____ 8.    ‑Renin is secreted by the anterior pituitary.

____ 9.    Prolactin stimulates milk production.

____10.   ‑Restlessness is a symptom of hyperthyroidism.

____11.   Hypoglycemia is high blood sugar.

____12.   ‑Left untreated, diabetes mellitus can be fatal.

____13.   Epinephrine is also known as adrenalin.

____14.   ‑Norepinephrine is both a hormone and a neurotransmitter.

____15.   ‑Prednisone is used to prevent organ rejection.

Essay

Write your answer in the space provided or on a separate sheet of paper.

  1. Explain how one endocrine gland is controlled by another.

____________________________________________

____________________________________________

____________________________________________

____________________________________________

  1. Explain the control of blood sugar by pancreatic hormones.

____________________________________________

____________________________________________

____________________________________________

____________________________________________

  1. Why is the use of injected steroids so dangerous?

____________________________________________

____________________________________________

____________________________________________

____________________________________________

  1. What is the purpose of a set point in the body?

____________________________________________

____________________________________________

____________________________________________

____________________________________________

  1. Describe how the thyroid and parathyroid glands interact.

____________________________________________

____________________________________________

____________________________________________

____________________________________________

Chapter 13

Multiple Choice

Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.

  1. Blood vessels that carry blood away from the heart are called ________.
  2. Arteries
  3. Arterioles
  4. Veins
  5. Capillaries
  6. Blood is pumped to the body during this part of the cardiac cycle ________.
  7. Atrial systole
  8. Atrial diastole
  9. Ventricular systole
  10. Ventricular diastole
  11. What is the name of the structure that separates the lower chambers of the heart?
  12. Atrial mitral valve
  13. Ventrical SA node
  14. Interatrial septum
  15. Interventricular septum
  16. What is the vessel that brings blood to the heart from the trunk and pelvic region?
  17. Superior vena cava
  18. Inferior vena cava
  19. Superior aorta
  20. Inferior artery
  21. What is another name for the left atrioventricular valve?
  22. Atrial valve
  23. Bicuspid valve
  24. Tricuspid valve
  25. Semilunar valve
  26. Which section of the heart receives blood from the right coronary artery?
  27. Right atrium
  28. Left atrium
  29. Right ventricle
  30. Left ventricle
  31. The group of pacemaker cells near the entrance of the superior vena cava form the ____________.
  32. Bundle of His
  33. Atrioventricular node
  34. Myocardium
  35. Sinoatrial node
  36. Which cranial nerve releases a neurotransmitter that can decrease the pulse and force of contraction?
  37. Abducens
  38. Vagus
  39. Hypoglossal
  40. Trochlear
  41. If heart rate decreases, what happens to blood pressure?
  42. nothing
  43. It depends on other conditions
  44. It increases
  45. It decreases
  46. If a patient has been infected by parasites, which white blood cell would be elevated in the bloodstream?
  47. Eosinophil
  48. Basophil
  49. Neutrophil
  50. Monocyte
  51. Which cells are involved in the production of antibodies?
  52. Monocytes
  53. Lymphocytes
  54. Erythrocytes
  55. Platelets
  56. Jill is Rh negative. Her first baby was Rh negative. She is pregnant again, but the baby is Rh positive. Without medical treatment, will her antibodies attack the baby’s blood?
  57. yes
  58. no
  59. probably not since her first child is Rh negative
  60. probably yes since her first child is Rh negative
  61. Capillary beds are fed by the
  62. Capillaries
  63. Venules
  64. Arterioles
  65. Platelets
  66. If the innermost wall of a vessel is damaged, the ____________ begin the repair by attaching to the damaged site.
  67. Fibrin
  68. Platelets
  69. Fibrinogen
  70. Thrombin
  71. What clotting protein, produced by the liver, begins the clotting process?
  72. Thrombin
  73. Prothrombin
  74. Fibrin
  75. Fibrinogen
  76. What color will blood exhibit if it has a high oxygen content?
  77. Blue
  78. Colorless
  79. Bright red
  80. Purple
  81. The pH value measures the levels of ________.
  82. WBCs and RBCs
  83. Electrolytes
  84. Antigens and antibodies
  85. Acidity and alkalinity
  86. Which WBC is effective in defending the body against parasites?
  87. Eosinophil
  88. Basophil
  89. Neutrophil
  90. Monocyte
  91. What is the most common blood type among Americans?
  92. A
  93. B
  94. O
  95. AB
  96. Peripheral vascular disease (PVD) is caused by ________.
  97. Hypertension
  98. Hypotension
  99. Angina
  100. Atherosclerosis
  101. Leukemia is usually due to bone marrow cancer, and creates a higher number of ________ than normal.
  102. WBCs
  103. Platelets
  104. RBCs
  105. Thrombocytes
  106. Which of the following is not a cause of thrombocytopenia?
  107. Vitamin K deficiency
  108. Bone marrow cancer
  109. Liver dysfunction
  110. Proper spleen function
  111. Ischemia of the myocardium causes ________.
  112. Myocardial infarction
  113. Angina
  114. Heart failure
  115. A murmur
  116. The term for the stoppage of blood flow is ________.
  117. Homeostasis
  118. Hemosclerosis
  119. Hemothrombus
  120. Hemostasis
  121. A substance that decreases the body’s ability to clot is ________.
  122. Aspirin
  123. Vitamin K
  124. Vitamin A
  125. Enzyme
  126. The ________ nervous system signals blood vessels to constrict.
  127. Parasympathetic
  128. Central
  129. Sympathetic
  130. Peripheral
  131. In terms of their location or movement, an embolus is a ________ clot, and a thrombus is a ________ clot.
  132. Stationary, stationary
  133. Floating/moving, stationary
  134. Floating/moving, floating/moving
  135. Stationary, floating/moving
  136. The bicuspid or mitral valve is the valve ________.
  137. Between the left atrium and left ventricle
  138. That opens from the right ventricle into the artery
  139. Between the right atrium and right ventricle
  140. That opens from the left ventricle into the artery
  141. Which of the following is not a white blood cell?
  142. Neutrophil
  143. Thrombocyte
  144. Lymphocyte
  145. All of the above are white blood cells
  146. This is the approximate number of red blood cells in one cubic millimeter of blood.
  147. 1 million
  148. 3 million
  149. 5 million
  150. 7 million
  151. The role of hemoglobin in the red blood cell is to ________.
  152. Carry oxygen
  153. Carry carbon dioxide
  154. Carry hormones
  155. Both a and b above
  156. This clotting disorder is an inherited disorder.
  157. Thrombosis
  158. Thrombocytopenia
  159. Hemophilia
  160. Embolism
  161. This is a condition where an artery has become abnormally widened because of a localized weakness in the arterial wall.
  162. An aneurysm
  163. Ischemia
  164. Gangrene
  165. Phlebitis
  166. Another name for “hardening of the arteries” is ________.
  167. Angina pectoris
  168. Myocardial infarction
  169. Arteriosclerosis
  170. Embolism
  171. This is a condition usually found in the legs where blood pools in the veins because the veins have become dilated and distorted.
  172. An aneurysm
  173. Phlebitis
  174. Varicose veins
  175. Gangrene
  176. A heartbeat that is below 60 beats per minute is called ________.
  177. Tachycardia
  178. Bradycardia
  179. Sinus dysrhythmia
  180. Fibrillation
  181. A person with type A blood ________.
  182. Has anti-A antibodies
  183. Has A antigens
  184. Has anti-B antibodies
  185. Both b and c above
  186. The blood type considered the universal donor is type ________.
  187. A
  188. B
  189. O
  190. AB
  191. The condition in which the patient experiences chest pain with exertion is ________.
  192. Angina pectoris
  193. Coronary artery disease
  194. Myocardial infarction
  195. Congestive heart failure
  196. The condition in which a reduction in the quantity of either red blood cells or hemoglobin exists is ________.
  197. Anemia
  198. Thrombocytopenia
  199. Leukemia
  200. Polycythemia
  201. Signs and symptoms of right-sided heart failure include all of the following except ________.
  202. Jugular vein distention
  203. Pulmonary edema
  204. Edema or swelling of hands and feet
  205. Splenomegaly
  206. Which of the following is a sign or symptom of left-sided heart failure?
  207. Jugular vein distention
  208. Edema or swelling of hands and feet
  209. Pulmonary edema
  210. Hepatomegaly
  211. Cardiac tamponade may result from ________.
  212. Pericarditis
  213. Endocarditis
  214. Heart failure
  215. Hypertension
  216. Congestive heart failure is now called ________.
  217. Pericarditis
  218. Endocarditis
  219. Heart failure
  220. Hypertension
  221. This drug commonly reduces or eliminates angina pectoris due to its ability to increase blood flow to the cardiac muscles by dilating coronary blood vessels.
  222. Epinephrine
  223. Lasix
  224. Oxygen
  225. Nitroglycerin
  226. Abnormal heart rhythms are called ________.
  227. Arrhythmias
  228. Sinus rhythm
  229. Bradycardia
  230. Tachycardia
  231. ________ is a condition in which chronic low levels of oxygen (due to lung disease or living in high altitudes) cause the body to produce more than normal amounts of erythrocytes to transport more efficiently the smaller amounts of available oxygen.
  232. Primary polycythemia
  233. Primary erythrocytopenia
  234. Secondary polycythemia
  235. Secondary erythrocytopenia
  236. ________ is caused by bone marrow cancer stimulating an over-production of erythrocytes.
  237. Primary polycythemia
  238. Primary erythrocytopenia
  239. Secondary polycythemia
  240. Secondary erythrocytopenia
  241. ________ is a blood condition in which there is a less than normal number of red blood cells or there is abnormal or deficient hemoglobin.
  242. Sickle cell anemia
  243. Leukemia
  244. Leukocytosis
  245. Anemia
  246. ________ is an inherited condition in which red blood cells and hemoglobin molecules do not form properly.
  247. Sickle cell anemia
  248. Leukemia
  249. Leukocytosis
  250. Anemia
  251. ________ is usually due to bone marrow cancer, and is a condition in which a higher than normal number of white blood cells are produced.
  252. Sickle cell anemia
  253. Leukemia
  254. Leukocytosis
  255. Anemia
  256. ________ also exhibits as a situation in which there is a higher than normal number of white blood cells. In this case, the cause is often an infection that is being fought.
  257. Sickle cell anemia
  258. Leukemia
  259. Leukocytosis
  260. Anemia

Short Answer

Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question.

  1. The ____________ is the tip of the heart, distal to the head.
  2. The bicuspid valve is also called the ____________ valve.
  3. Cardiac output is determined by heart rate and __________________.
  4. The ____________ side of the heart pumps blood to the lungs.
  5. During a severe hemorrhage, blood vessels will ______________ causing an increase in peripheral resistance in an attempt to raise blood pressure.
  6. Red blood cells are called ____________.
  7. Type ____________ is the universal recipient of blood donations.
  8. The middle layer of the vessel is the tunica ____________.
  9. After leaving the AV node, the electrical impulse spreads to the _________________.
  10. In an EKG, the __________________ wave corresponds to atrial depolarization.
  11. ____________ is the process in which neutrophils surround and ingest invaders.
  12. ____________ or clotting is the prevention of bleeding.
  13. The smallest arteries are ____________.
  14. During ventricular systole, the __________________ valves are closed.
  15. The epicardium is also the ________________________.
  16. The sinoatrial node is also called the ________.
  17. ________ is the chemical symbol for mercury.
  18. ________ defend against parasites.
  19. A lower number of white cells than normal is ________.
  20. Tissue death is called ________ or necrosis.
  21. Extremely low blood pressure, as in shock, can affect blood profusion to vital organs and cause tissue damage and ________.
  22. Peripheral vascular disease is a condition caused by plaque buildup called atherosclerosis in the ________ arteries.
  23. In a blood transfusion, if the patient receives blood of the wrong blood type, the donor’s antigens and the recipient’s antibodies ________ and cause serious harm or death.
  24. The medication nitroglycerin increases blood flow to cardiac muscle by vasodilation of the ________ blood vessels.
  25. Women who smoke and use oral contraceptives are at a higher risk of formation of thrombi in the blood vessels, which can break off to become ________.
  26. ________ is a type of blood cancer that can cause increased WBCs.
  27. When an infection occurs, the body produces a(n) ________ than normal number of neutrophils, which are one type of WBC.
  28. The first hour of a myocardial infarction (heart attack) is critical, so emergency services should be called immediately even if the patient ________ they are having a heart attack.
  29. Anemia is a blood condition in which there are fewer than normal RBCs or there is an abnormality or deficiency of ________.
  30. Antibodies often react with the antigens that caused them to form, and the antigens stick together, or ________, in little clumps.
  31. A high-fat and high-salt diet, age, obesity, smoking, stress, and decreasing flexibility of the blood vessels can all contribute to ________.
  32. A type of clot called a(n) ________ or emboli can partially or totally block blood flow to a portion of the heart, resulting in a coronary thrombosis, which can cause a heart attack.
  33. ________ is a condition in which there are fewer than normal circulating platelets.
  34. Since type AB doesn’t contain plasma anti-A antibodies or anti-B antibodies, it can’t clump with any donated blood that contains A or B antigens. Because of this, a type AB person is labeled a(n) ________.
  35. Basophils are important because they secrete the chemical ________, which helps to keep blood from clotting as it courses through blood vessels.
  36. A(n) ________ is a result of blood leaking backward due to a faulty heart valve or a narrowed valve opening.
  37. ________ is a narrowing of a valve and can be caused by rheumatic fever, congenital origin, or the aging process.
  38. A(n) ________ is a weakening and distortion of the walls of an artery and can be caused by hypertension or trauma.
  39. ________ is often called chest pain and is caused by ischemia of the myocardium, as a result of poor blood perfusion of the heart tissue.
  40. Coronary artery disease or CAD is an insufficient blood flow to the heart tissue. It is usually due to ________ but may be due to clot(s) in a coronary artery.
  41. A(n) ________ is a clot that has moved or traveled and can be caused by thrombophlebitis, venous stasis, or contraceptives.
  42. ________ is a chronic increase in pressure and can be caused by heredity, diet, or smoking.
  43. ________ can be caused by conditions or situations that lead to a decreased blood flow to the heart tissue, and leads to ischemia or necrosis (Do not use the abbreviation).
  44. ________ veins are dilated and distorted blood veins that are normally found superficially in the legs but can also be found in the rectum.
  45. ________ may be caused by decreased red blood cell (RB) production.
  46. ________ is an inherited bleeding disorder.
  47. ________ is a less than normal level of platelets, that may be due to leukemia, or bone marrow aplasia.

True/False

Write ‘T’ if the statement is true and ‘F’ if the statement is false.

____ 1.    All arteries carry oxygenated blood.

____ 2.    Arteries have thinner walls than veins.

____ 3.    ‑It is called systole when the heart ­contracts.

____ 4.    The vagus nerve increases heart rate.

____ 5.    ‑The ventricles are contracted during the QRS interval of the EKG.

____ 6.    Plasma is a yellowish fluid.

____ 7.    Monocytes are erythrocytes.

____ 8.    Type AB has no antigens.

____ 9.    ‑The innermost layer of the blood vessel is the tunica interna.

____10.   ‑During the final stage of clotting the clot becomes water soluble.

____11.   ‑During severe dehydration, blood pressure rises.

____12.   A floating embolus is a thrombus.

____13.   ‑Decreased blood flow to tissues is called ischemia.

____14.   Atherosclerosis is caused by plaque.

____15.   ‑Heart valves close when their tissue is depolarized.

Essay

Write your answer in the space provided or on a separate sheet of paper.

  1. Draw the ECG tracing and describe what P, QRS, and T indicate.

____________________________________________

____________________________________________

____________________________________________

____________________________________________

  1. Trace the flow of blood through the heart from superior and inferior vena cave to aorta.

____________________________________________

____________________________________________

____________________________________________

____________________________________________

  1. Discuss why an O negative mother should be concerned about her second pregnancy.

____________________________________________

____________________________________________

____________________________________________

____________________________________________

  1. Explain the clotting process.

____________________________________________

____________________________________________

____________________________________________

____________________________________________

  1. Explain the factors that influence blood pressure.

____________________________________________

____________________________________________

____________________________________________

____________________________________________

Chapter 14

Multiple Choice

Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.

  1. During metabolism, your body produces the waste product ____________.
  2. Oxygen
  3. Nitrogen
  4. Carbon monoxide
  5. Carbon dioxide
  6. The process of gas exchange between air and blood is called
  7. Ventilation
  8. External respiration
  9. Internal respiration
  10. Respiration
  11. The respiratory system terminates at the
  12. Alveoli
  13. Bronchus
  14. Bronchioles
  15. Lungs
  16. What region contains the coarse nasal hairs?
  17. Pharyngeal
  18. Vestibular
  19. Olfactory
  20. Laryngeal
  21. ____________ cells are responsible for the production of mucus.
  22. Goblet
  23. Epithelial
  24. Cilia
  25. Basal
  26. The vocal cords are located in the ____________.
  27. Nasal cavity
  28. Larynx
  29. Oropharynx
  30. Laryngopharynx
  31. The trachea extends from the larynx to the ____________ vertebrae.
  32. 2nd cervical
  33. 1st thoracic
  34. 6th thoracic
  35. 4th lumbar
  36. Type II cells that line the alveoli are responsible for the production of
  37. Carina
  38. Surfactant
  39. Carbon dioxide
  40. Nitrogen
  41. The diaphragm is covered by a serous membrane called the ____________.
  42. Visceral membrane
  43. Visceral pleura
  44. Musculo-serous membrane
  45. Parietal pleura
  46. The area of the left lung that corresponds to the right middle lobe is ____________.
  47. Lingula
  48. Hilum
  49. Carina
  50. Sternum
  51. Which region of the brain controls breathing?
  52. Hypothalamus
  53. Cerebrum
  54. Medulla oblongata
  55. Occipital
  56. All of these muscles aid ventilation except _______________ .
  57. Abdominal
  58. Pleural
  59. Accessory
  60. Respiratory
  61. _____________________ is the amount of gas moved during normal ventilation.
  62. Inspiratory reserve volume
  63. Vital Capacity
  64. Tidal Volume
  65. Expiratory reserve volume
  66. When the diaphragm contracts, lung volume ______________________.
  67. Decreases
  68. Increases
  69. Stays the same
  70. Changes depending on circumstances
  71. The _______________ nerve carries impulses to the diaphragm.
  72. Phrenic
  73. Vagus
  74. Diaphragmatic
  75. Thoracic
  76. Due to the structure of the ________, a large amount of moisture is added to the respiratory system every day.
  77. Nares
  78. Trachea
  79. Conchae
  80. Eustachian tube
  81. The “clean-up” cells are located in the ________ layer of alveolar membrane.
  82. Surfactant
  83. Epithelial
  84. Interstitial space
  85. Capillary endothelium
  86. The kidneys attempt to increase hemoglobin levels in the body by the release of ________.
  87. Iron
  88. Oxygen
  89. Erythrocytes
  90. Erythropoietin
  91. The diaphragm receives help from the ________ muscles in the activity of breathing.
  92. Pleural
  93. Thoracic
  94. Accessory
  95. Respiratory
  96. Pleural effusion with pus is a(n) ________.
  97. Hydrothorax
  98. Empyema
  99. Emphysema
  100. Eczema
  101. A lack of lung surfactant causes ________ lungs that resist expansion.
  102. Floppy
  103. Inflamed
  104. Infected
  105. Stiff
  106. The majority of cases of chronic bronchitis are caused by
  107. Asthma
  108. Allergies
  109. Smoking
  110. Fungi
  111. Which of the following is not part of the upper respiratory tract?
  112. Trachea
  113. Larynx
  114. Pharynx
  115. Nose
  116. Which of the following is not part of the lower respiratory tract?
  117. Trachea
  118. Larynx
  119. Bronchi
  120. Lungs
  121. Which of the following is not a subdivision of the pharynx?
  122. Tracheopharynx
  123. Nasopharynx
  124. Oropharynx
  125. Laryngopharynx
  126. This structure is not a part of the larynx ________.
  127. Thyroid cartilage
  128. Vocal cords
  129. Epiglottis
  130. Eustachian tubes
  131. The first respiratory structures without cartilage as a supporting tissue are ________.
  132. Primary bronchi
  133. Secondary bronchi
  134. Bronchioles
  135. Alveolar ducts
  136. The movement of air into and out of the lung is called ________.
  137. Evacuation
  138. Perspiration
  139. Respiration
  140. Ventilation
  141. The exchange of gases between the cells and the blood is called ________.
  142. Evacuation
  143. Perspiration
  144. Respiration
  145. Ventilation
  146. The amount of air that can be forcibly taken in after normally inhaling is called ________.
  147. Tidal volume
  148. Residual volume
  149. Inspiratory reserve volume
  150. Expiratory reserve volume
  151. A collection of air or gas in the thoracic cavity, as the result of a stab wound or gunshot wound to the chest describes a condition called ________.
  152. Emphysema
  153. Bronchiectasis
  154. Pneumoconiosis
  155. Pneumothorax
  156. ________ is a destructive disease of the alveoli and the adjacent capillary walls resulting in chronic dyspnea, cough, and the characteristic barrel chest.
  157. Emphysema
  158. Bronchiectasis
  159. Pneumoconiosis
  160. Pneumothorax
  161. Which of the following is not a respiratory structure?
  162. Larynx
  163. Esophagus
  164. Bronchi
  165. Nose
  166. The two most important respiratory control centers are located in this part of the brain ________.
  167. Medulla oblongata
  168. Pons
  169. Cerebral cortex
  170. Cerebellum
  171. Chemoreceptors that help regulate breathing can be found ________.
  172. In the medulla oblongata
  173. In the carotid artery
  174. In the aorta
  175. Both b and c
  176. Labored or difficult breathing is referred to as ________.
  177. Apnea
  178. Dyspnea
  179. Eupnea
  180. Cheyne-Stokes respiration
  181. Shortness of breath is called ________.
  182. Dyspnea
  183. Eupnea
  184. Orthopnea
  185. Wheezing
  186. ________ is a condition in which there is air inside the thoracic cavity and outside of the lungs.
  187. Pleuritis
  188. Pleurisy
  189. Pneumothorax
  190. Hemothorax
  191. ________ is a condition in which there is an excessive build-up of fluid in the pleural space between the parietal and visceral pleura.
  192. Pneumothorax
  193. Pleural effusion
  194. Pulmonary edema
  195. Empyema
  196. ________ is pus in the pleural space.
  197. Hemothorax
  198. Pleural effusion
  199. Hydrothorax
  200. Empyema
  201. ________ is blood in the pleural space.
  202. Hemothorax
  203. Pleural effusion
  204. Hydrothorax
  205. Empyema
  206. ________ is distinguished by having reversible airway narrowing and airway hyperreactivity; and is most commonly characterized as an inflammatory process.
  207. Asthma
  208. Emphysema
  209. Chronic bronchitis
  210. Bronchiectasis
  211. ________ is characterized anatomically as the permanent, abnormal enlargement of distal airway spaces and destruction of the alveolar walls.
  212. Asthma
  213. Emphysema
  214. Chronic bronchitis
  215. Bronchiectasis
  216. ________ is associated with a chronic productive cough, enlargement of mucous glands, and hypertrophy of the airway smooth muscle ________.
  217. Asthma
  218. Emphysema
  219. Chronic bronchitis
  220. Bronchiectasis
  221. The inability to get air out of the lungs is known as ________.
  222. Hyperinflation
  223. Bronchospasm
  224. COPD
  225. Gas trapping
  226. Which of the following drugs has as its basic purpose to reduce the work of breathing, increase the oxygen content of the blood, and reduce the work of the heart?
  227. Antivirals
  228. Insulin
  229. Oxygen
  230. Antibiotics
  231. Which drug provides rapid relief of an acute situation of airway narrowing?
  232. Bronchodilators
  233. Steroids
  234. Oxygen
  235. Antibiotics

Short Answer

Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question.

  1. The trachea branches into mainstem ____________.
  2. The bronchi branch into ____________.
  3. The part of the respiratory system that carries air but has no gas exchange capability is called the ____________________ zone.
  4. The process of gas exchange is known as ____________.
  5. Air filled cavities in the facial bones are known as ____________.
  6. Food is prevented from entering the trachea by the ____________.
  7. The windpipe is known as the ____________.
  8. The site of bifurcation in the bronchi is called the ____________.
  9. Premature infants are often in danger due to a lack of __________________ in the lungs.
  10. As CO2 levels rise, pH decreases and ____________ rate increases.
  11. The alveoli consists of _____________ cells.
  12. The oropharynx is lined with _________________ epithelium.
  13. A young woman dives into the surf, hitting her head and causing a spinal cord injury. She is in respiratory arrest. Her injury is most likely above the ___________________ spinal cord segment.
  14. The motor neurons for ventilation are in the brain region known as the ______________________.
  15. Red blood cell numbers are controlled by a hormone released by the _______________.
  16. Oxygen is abbreviated as the chemical sign ________.
  17. Carbon dioxide is abbreviated as ________.
  18. The smallest blood vessels are known as ________.
  19. Producing sound is known as ________.
  20. Olfaction is the sense of ________.
  21. The vocal cords are found in the ________.
  22. The liquid ________ layer lines the alveoli.
  23. Red blood cells are known as ________.
  24. Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is a global term for the conditions of emphysema, and chronic ________.
  25. In pleural effusion, if the fluid in the pleural space has pus, it is known as ________.
  26. There has been recent concern about a multi drug-________ form of TB that does not respond to the usual TB drugs and that has a high mortality rate.
  27. The terms iron-poor blood or tired blood come from the fact that a patient with low levels of iron tires easily due to low ________ or hemoglobin levels.
  28. Excessive secretions and fluid, such as in pneumonia, act as barriers and reduce the ________ in the blood.
  29. Bloody fluid found in the pleural cavity/space is called a(n) ________.
  30. In susceptible individuals, ________ causes recurrent episodes of wheezing, breathlessness, chest tightness, and cough, particularly at night and in the early morning.
  31. The lungs reside in the thoracic cavity and are separated by a region called the ________, which contains the esophagus, heart, great vessels, and trachea.
  32. Swallowed materials pass through the ________ to get to the stomach.
  33. A(n) ________ is a condition in which there is an excessive build-up of fluid in the pleural space between the parietal and the visceral pleura.
  34. The ________, or breastbone, is centrally located on the anterior portion of the thoracic cage and is comprised of the manubrium, body, and xiphoid process.
  35. During increased physical activity or in disease states in which more oxygen is required, ________ are used to help pull up your rib cage to make an even larger space in the thoracic cavity.
  36. ________ is a respiratory infection causing pressure, pain and often a headache.
  37. The nasopharynx contains lymphatic tissue of the immune system, called the ________, and passageways to the middle ear called eustachian tubes.
  38. The major pathology of the upper airways include ________ or allergies of the sinuses, nose, or throat.
  39. ________, or sore throat, causes discomfort especially when swallowing.
  40. ________, or an inflamed voice box, is characterized by hoarseness and loss of speech.
  41. ________ is a condition in which the alveoli of the lungs are either partially or totally collapsed.
  42. ________ is a lung infection that can be caused by a virus, fungus, bacterium, aspiration, or chemical inhalation.
  43. ________ is defined as the presence of productive cough during 3 months of the year for 2 consecutive years, provided that other causes of chronic sputum production are excluded.

True/False

Write ‘T’ if the statement is true and ‘F’ if the statement is false.

____ 1.    ‑The upper respiratory tract begins at the nares and ends at the trachea.

____ 2.    ‑The nasal cavity is divided into right and left halves by a septum.

____ 3.    ‑The pontine respiratory group is the chief respiratory center.

____ 4.    ‑Respiratory mucosa is ciliated cuboidal epithelium with goblet cells.

____ 5.    The oropharynx is behind the mouth.

____ 6.    ‑The major type of alveolar cell is Type II, or granular pneumocytes.

____ 7.    ‑The hormone erythropoietin is released in the lungs.

____ 8.    ‑Inspired objects usually lodge in the left lung.

____ 9.    ‑The thoracic cavity and the upper side of the diaphragm are lined with the visceral pleura.

____10.   ‑The hilum is the area where the root of each lung is attached.

____11.   ‑The thoracic cage consists of twelve pairs of elastic arches of bone called ribs.

____12.   The cerebrum controls breathing.

____13.   ‑The dome-shaped muscle that acts to ventilate is the diaphragm.

____14.   ‑The portion of the sternum where CPR is performed is the xiphoid process.

____15.   ‑Atelectasis is the situation in which the air sacs collapse.

Essay

Write your answer in the space provided or on a separate sheet of paper.

  1. List the changes in the layers of the wall of the respiratory system from conducting zone to respiratory zone.

____________________________________________

____________________________________________

____________________________________________

____________________________________________

  1. Why do we breathe through our noses?

____________________________________________

____________________________________________

____________________________________________

____________________________________________

  1. Discuss how the angle of branching of the bronchi makes a difference in which lung receives aspirations.

____________________________________________

____________________________________________

____________________________________________

____________________________________________

  1. Explain the mechanism of ventilation.

____________________________________________

____________________________________________

____________________________________________

____________________________________________

  1. Discuss the effect of surfactant.

____________________________________________

____________________________________________

____________________________________________

____________________________________________

Chapter 15

Multiple Choice

Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.

  1. In addition to storage of white blood cells the lymphatic system is also responsible for
  2. Producing pathogens to fight infections
  3. Producing fluids to supplement the cardiovascular system
  4. Production of some types of white blood cells
  5. Maturation of some types of red blood cells
  6. Lymph nodes can be described as
  7. Small encapsulated bodies
  8. Patches of cytokines
  9. Immature antibodies
  10. Organelles of immunity
  11. Lymphatic trunks from the lumbar region empty into the
  12. Left lymphatic duct
  13. Right lymphatic duct
  14. Sacral duct
  15. Thoracic duct
  16. Which structure will sometimes disappear in adults?
  17. Sinus
  18. Spleen
  19. Thymus
  20. Pancreas
  21. Unique molecules found on the outer surface of cell membranes are called
  22. Antigens
  23. Antibodies
  24. Interferon
  25. Cytokines
  26. Innate immunity triggers a series of mechanisms that target specific pathogens; the mechanisms are called
  27. Passive immunity
  28. Helper cells
  29. Activation cells
  30. Adaptive immunity
  31. The body has both physical and chemical ____________ to prevent invaders from entering.
  32. Cells
  33. Barriers
  34. Nodes
  35. Cytes
  36. The first leukocytes to arrive at the site of damage are the
  37. Neutrophils
  38. Basophils
  39. Mast cells
  40. Dendrite cells
  41. The ____________ cells release antibodies to destroy cells that carry non-self antigens.
  42. Mast
  43. B-lymphocytic
  44. T-lymphocytic
  45. Natural killer
  46. What is the cytokine which is produced to stimulate macrophages and cause death of cancer cells?
  47. Interferon
  48. Interleukin
  49. Cytokinase
  50. Tumor necrosis factor
  51. What name is given to the series of reactions responsible for activation of twenty normally inactive proteins?
  52. Complement cascade
  53. Inflammatory response
  54. Margination selection
  55. Differentiation process
  56. For your body to launch an effective response to invading pathogens, innate immunity must join forces with the
  57. Lymphatic system
  58. Cardiovascular system
  59. Adaptive immunity
  60. Hypothalamus
  61. There are two types of proliferation, one for ____________ and one for all other types of lymphocytes.
  62. Natural killer cells
  63. B-cells
  64. Helper T-cells
  65. Dendritic cells
  66. ____________ are essential for the reproduction of B cells and other types of cells.
  67. Memory B-cells
  68. Helper T-cells
  69. Cytotoxic T-cells
  70. Regulatory T-cells
  71. Once the threat of invasion is over, the ____________ are responsible for “turning-off” the response.
  72. Memory B-cells
  73. Regulatory T-cells
  74. Cytotoxic T-cells
  75. Helper B-cells
  76. The HIV virus targets ________ cells.
  77. Natural killer cells
  78. B-cells
  79. Helper T-cells
  80. Dendritic cells
  81. It is because of adaptive ________ that people normally get chicken pox only once.
  82. Immunity
  83. WBCs
  84. Antibodies
  85. Antigens
  86. Barriers include all of the following except ________.
  87. Mucous membranes
  88. Skin
  89. Sebaceous glands
  90. Nails
  91. Which stage of cancer would mean it had spread to nearby tissues?
  92. Stage four
  93. Stage seven
  94. Stage two
  95. Stage five
  96. Which of the following is not one of the immune system’s components?
  97. Barrier
  98. NSAID
  99. Inflammation
  100. Chemical
  101. The ________ gland is larger in children because they are exposed to many new infections.
  102. Thymus
  103. Thyroid
  104. Thalamus
  105. Tinnitus
  106. In rheumatoid arthritis, the immune system attacks the ________.
  107. Pleural membrane
  108. Mucous membrane
  109. Synovial membrane
  110. Myelin membrane
  111. The ________ in the chest is part of the lymphatic system and helps T lymphocytes mature.
  112. Pharyngeal tonsils
  113. Spleen
  114. Palatine tonsils
  115. Thymus
  116. The spleen is a lymph organ that filters blood and also acts as a reservoir for ________.
  117. Water
  118. Fat
  119. Interstitial fluid
  120. Blood
  121. Getting a flu shot to protect against the flu is an example of ________.
  122. Natural passive immunity
  123. Natural active immunity
  124. Artificial active immunity
  125. Artificial passive immunity
  126. The fetus receives antibodies from the mother which last several weeks after birth. This is an example of ________.
  127. Natural passive immunity
  128. Natural active immunity
  129. Artificial active immunity
  130. Artificial passive immunity
  131. If you have had the chicken pox once, you will not get chicken pox again. This is an example of ________.
  132. Natural passive immunity
  133. Natural active immunity
  134. Artificial active immunity
  135. Artificial passive immunity
  136. If you are exposed to hepatitis A and have not been vaccinated against it, you may receive antibodies from another person. This is an example of ________.
  137. Natural passive immunity
  138. Natural active immunity
  139. Artificial active immunity
  140. Artificial passive immunity
  141. A cytokine produced by cells in response to invasion by a virus is ________.
  142. Complement
  143. Interferon
  144. Interleukin
  145. Mucus
  146. The group of diseases that occur when antibodies develop and begin to destroy the body’s own cells is ________.
  147. Immunodeficiency diseases
  148. Autoimmune diseases
  149. Immunocompetent diseases
  150. Diseases of the reticuloendothelial system
  151. The activated lymphocytes must make thousands of copies of themselves in order to fight off the thousands of pathogens reproducing in the body. This reproduction of lymphocytes is called ________.
  152. Lymphocyte proliferation
  153. Lymphocyte activation
  154. Differentiation
  155. Immunization
  156. HIV infection and subsequently AIDS, is characterized by severe decrease in immune function, particularly ________.
  157. Memory B-cells
  158. Neutrophils
  159. Helper T-cells
  160. Plasma cells
  161. If the body is exposed to the same pathogen in the future, memory cells allow the body to mount a much faster response to the invasion known as the ________ response.
  162. Primary
  163. Secondary
  164. Tertiary
  165. Quaternary
  166. What kind of cells produce antibodies?
  167. T cells
  168. B cells
  169. NK cells
  170. Neutrophils
  171. Which of these is an autoimmune disease?
  172. c and d only
  173. Influenza
  174. Rheumatoid arthritis
  175. Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE)
  176. In this stage of cancer, spread to distant tissues and organs is present ________.
  177. Stage I
  178. Stage II
  179. Stage III
  180. Stage IV
  181. In this stage of cancer, no spread from the origin is present ________.
  182. Stage I
  183. Stage II
  184. Stage III
  185. Stage IV
  186. In this stage of cancer, spread to nearby lymph nodes is present ________.
  187. Stage I
  188. Stage II
  189. Stage III
  190. Stage IV
  191. This stage of cancer is often terminal ________.
  192. Stage I
  193. Stage II
  194. Stage III
  195. Stage IV
  196. The signs and symptoms of inflammation include all of the following except ________.
  197. Cold
  198. Pain
  199. Swelling
  200. Redness
  201. Symptoms of rheumatoid arthritis include ________.
  202. Joint stiffness
  203. Symmetrical joint damage
  204. Decreased range of motion
  205. All of the above
  206. Signs and symptoms of allergies can include all of the following except ________.
  207. Weight loss
  208. Wheezing
  209. Upper respiratory infections
  210. Hives

Short Answer

Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question.

  1. The ____________ system is the transport system for pathogens and white blood cells.
  2. Lymph capillaries empty into lymphatic ____________.
  3. The ____________ is a lymphatic organ that destroys red blood cells.
  4. The ____________ is the soft organ between the aortic arch and sternum.
  5. Any organism that invades your body and causes disease is a(n) ____________.
  6. ____________ immunity is your body’s inborn ability to fight infection.
  7. ____________ are molecules on the outer surface of cells.
  8. ____________, or white blood cells, defend the body.
  9. ____________, and mast cells, release chemicals to promote inflammation.
  10. Vaccination triggers ________________________ immunity.
  11. Ultimately the cause of death in AIDS patients is ___________________.
  12. Walling off an infected area is called ____________.
  13. Selection of lymphocytes which react to antigens is called _______________ selection.
  14. Redness, heat, swelling and pain are signs of ____________.
  15. The reproduction of activated B cells is called _____________________.
  16. ________ fight parasitic worms.
  17. ________ means to break down or destroy.
  18. Cancers that are diagnosed after they have already spread to other organs are much more likely to be ________.
  19. There are several different types of leukemia based on the ________ of WBCs and the nature of the patient’s symptoms.
  20. When the hypothalamus causes a rise in body temperature during an illness, it is purposely trying to destroy the invading ________.
  21. Symptoms of leukemia are caused by decreased function of WBCs (if the cells are immature) and decreased ________ of RBCs and platelets.
  22. In ________ disorders, the body fails to recognize “self” and destroys its own tissue.
  23. The inflammatory response is the same, whether it is a mechanical injury, a wound infection, damage due to a pathogen, or ________ throat.
  24. A rise in body temperature is one way the immune system deliberately tries to kill a(n) ________.
  25. The lumbar, intestinal, and intercostal trunk all empty into the ________ duct, a large duct that runs from the abdomen up through the diaphragm and into the left subclavian vein.
  26. Cells have molecules on the outer surface of their membranes to distinguish whether they are friend or foe. These molecules are called ________.
  27. Complement ________ is a complex series of reactions that activate 20 proteins that are usually inactive in the blood unless activated by a pathogen invasion.
  28. If an invader has an opportunity to enter the body, white blood cells, or ________, are responsible for defending the body against invaders.
  29. ________ are proteins produced by damaged tissues and white blood cells that stimulate immune response in a variety of ways, including increasing inflammation, stimulating lymphocytes, and enhancing phagocytosis.
  30. ________ is characterized by four cardinal signs: swelling, pain, heat, and redness.
  31. The destruction of self-recognizing lymphocytes is known as ________.
  32. ________ arthritis is an autoimmune disorder in which the immune system attacks the synovial membrane of a patient’s joints.
  33. Cytotoxic T cells release a cytokine called ________, which causes infected cells to develop holes in their membranes and die.
  34. ________ is staged and prognosis is determined by the amount of metastasis, tumor characteristics, and lymph node involvement.
  35. ________ is a cancer of the bone marrow and blood, characterized by the overproduction of white blood cells.
  36. Inflammation that becomes systemic and is caused by allergic reactions to insect stings, nuts, or shellfish is called ________.
  37. ________ is the rise in body temperature as a deliberate attempt by the immune system to destroy the pathogens that have invaded the body.
  38. ________ disorders occur when the immune system attacks some part of the body. The body fails to recognize “self” and destroys its own tissue as if it were an invader.
  39. ________ arthritis is an autoimmune disorder in which the immune system attacks the synovial membrane of patient’s joints.
  40. Systemic lupus erythematosis (SLE) is a(n) ________ disorder in which the immune system attacks a variety of structures in the body.
  41. Acquired immune deficiency syndrome (AIDS) is an immune ________ disorder caused by infection with the human immunodeficiency virus (HIV).
  42. ________ are caused by the overreaction of the immune system to typically harmless antigens, like mold, pollen, or animal fur.
  43. ________ is caused by the uncontrolled proliferation of lymphocytes.

True/False

Write ‘T’ if the statement is true and ’F’ if the statement is false.

____ 1.    ‑Antigen displaying cells are infected by pathogens so they can display the antigens.

____ 2.    ‑Fever is caused by neurotransmitters released by pathogens.

____ 3.    ‑Innate immunity improves with experience.

____ 4.    ‑Antigens are the body’s weapons against disease.

____ 5.    ‑Lymph nodes contain blood sinuses, and red and white pulp.

____ 6.    ‑All lymphocytes are part of adaptive immunity.

____ 7.    ‑Macrophages are part of innate immunity.

____ 8.    Memory B cells remember pathogens.

____ 9.    ‑An increase in cell number is called proliferation.

____10.   ‑The Human Immunodeficiency Virus (HIV) targets CD-2 cells.

____11.   ‑Natural immunity is acquired during vaccination.

____12.   Macrophages ingest invaders.

____13.   ‑Autoimmune disorders are the opposite of immunodeficiency disorders.

____14.   ‑A hypersensitivity reaction is also called an allergy.

____15.   ‑T lymphocytes are responsible for adaptive immunity known as antibody mediated immunity.

Essay

Write your answer in the space provided or on a separate sheet of paper.

  1. Describe why nodes are located near lungs, digestive, and reproductive organs.

____________________________________________

____________________________________________

____________________________________________

____________________________________________

  1. Discuss how cancer is staged.

____________________________________________

____________________________________________

____________________________________________

____________________________________________

  1. How does self vs. non-self recognition affect the immune system?

____________________________________________

____________________________________________

____________________________________________

____________________________________________

  1. Compare and contrast innate vs. adaptive immunity.

____________________________________________

____________________________________________

____________________________________________

____________________________________________

  1. Explain why HIV causes severe immune deficiency by attacking one type of cell.

____________________________________________

____________________________________________

____________________________________________

____________________________________________

Chapter 16

Multiple Choice

Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.

  1. The digestive tract begins at the oral cavity and ends at the ________.
  2. Pharynx
  3. Colon
  4. Anus
  5. Appendix
  6. Which of the following is a function of the oral cavity?
  7. Starch digestion
  8. Protein digestion
  9. Peristalsis
  10. Nutrient absorption
  11. An abnormally formed ____________ will interfere with the development of clear speech.
  12. Molar
  13. Frenulum
  14. Vermiform
  15. Duodenum
  16. The smallest of the salivary glands are the ________.
  17. Sublinguals
  18. Submandibulars
  19. Parotids
  20. Subbuccals
  21. The ____________ teeth are blade shaped and used for cutting food.
  22. Incisor
  23. Canine
  24. Bicuspid
  25. Molar
  26. The ____________ is used by both the digestive and respiratory systems.
  27. Epipharynx
  28. Oropharynx
  29. Nasopharynx
  30. Larynx
  31. The esophagus differs from the rest of the alimentary tract in that it possesses no ________.
  32. Adventitia
  33. Muscularis
  34. Mucosa
  35. Serosa
  36. The stomach has four regions, the area that connects with the small intestine is called the
  37. Fundus
  38. Body
  39. Pylorus
  40. Cardiac region
  41. The stomach releases the hormone ____________ to aid in digestion.
  42. Pepsin
  43. HCL
  44. Secretin
  45. Gastrin
  46. What is the last section of the small intestine, before it empties into the large intestine, called?
  47. Duodenum
  48. Stomach
  49. Jejunum
  50. Ileum
  51. Which hormone is responsible for inhibiting the release of gastric juice?
  52. SIP
  53. Pepsin
  54. CCK
  55. Gastrin
  56. This organ has an extra layer of muscle ________.
  57. Stomach
  58. Colon
  59. Liver
  60. Spleen
  61. The appendix is attached at which area?
  62. Colon
  63. Anus
  64. Cecum
  65. Rectum
  66. Which organ is responsible for the production of bile?
  67. Liver
  68. Stomach
  69. Small intestine
  70. Large intestine
  71. Hepatocytes receive blood from both the hepatic artery and the _______________
  72. Hepatic vein
  73. Hepatic portal vein
  74. Hepatic portal artery
  75. Hepatic capillaries
  76. The ________ is the base, or floor of the mouth.
  77. Tongue
  78. Soft palate
  79. Labia
  80. Hard palate
  81. The structure responsible for the absorption of excess water is the ________.
  82. Stomach
  83. Large intestine
  84. Liver
  85. Spleen
  86. Enzymes are necessary for digestion; ________ is produced to break down fats.
  87. Nuclease
  88. Lipase
  89. Carbohydrase
  90. Maltase
  91. The type of hernia where the stomach protrudes through the diaphragm and into the thoracic cavity is ________.
  92. Hiatal
  93. Hepatic
  94. Cholecystic
  95. Celiac
  96. Pancreatitis can be caused by all but which one of the following?
  97. Gallbladder disease
  98. Excessive pancreatic enzyme activation
  99. Lithotripsy
  100. Excessive alcohol consumption
  101. Which of these is not one of the causes of dental caries?
  102. Carbohydrate-rich diet
  103. LDL
  104. Poor dental hygiene
  105. Lack of regular dental visits
  106. Lactose intolerant patients cannot digest the ________ in milk.
  107. Protein
  108. Sugar
  109. Fat
  110. Cholesterol
  111. Hepatitis can be caused by any of the following except ________.
  112. The common cold
  113. An infectious agent
  114. A toxin
  115. Shared needles
  116. A colostomy may be the appropriate treatment for ________.
  117. Hyperactive peristalsis
  118. Allowing healing after surgery
  119. Chronic constipation
  120. None of the above
  121. ________ is a form of chronic inflammatory bowel disease.
  122. Gastroenteritis
  123. Irritable bowel syndrome
  124. Crohn’s disease
  125. Peritonitis
  126. ________ is caused by a viral and/or bacterial infection and/or inflammation of the stomach and small intestine.
  127. Gastroenteritis
  128. Peritonitis
  129. Irritable bowel syndrome
  130. Crohn’s disease
  131. Polyposis is a small tumor with a pedicle in the mucous membrane of the ________.
  132. Stomach
  133. Small intestine
  134. Duodenum
  135. Colon
  136. The punching bag-shaped structure hanging down from the soft palate is called the ________.
  137. Frenulum
  138. Papillae
  139. Uvula
  140. Palatine tonsil
  141. This type of tooth is responsible for crushing and grinding.
  142. Incisor
  143. Canine
  144. Premolar
  145. Molar
  146. This substance is the outer covering of the shell of the tooth in the crown.
  147. Cementum
  148. Enamel
  149. Dentin
  150. Pulp
  151. Most of the interior of the tooth is made of this substance.
  152. Cementum
  153. Enamel
  154. Dentin
  155. Gingiva
  156. This condition is the cracking and associated inflammation found on the lips and corners of the mouth are not caused by cancer, but rather can be traced to infections, allergies, or even to nutritional deficiency.
  157. Periodontitis
  158. Dental caries
  159. Gingivitis
  160. Cheilitis
  161. Which of the following is not a salivary gland?
  162. Sublingual gland
  163. Submandibular gland
  164. Submaxillary gland
  165. Parotid gland
  166. This enzyme is produced by the salivary glands and begins the chemical digestion of carbohydrates ________.
  167. Salivary amylase
  168. Salivary maltase
  169. Salivary sucrase
  170. Salivary lactase
  171. The order of the segments of the small intestine from the stomach to the large intestine is which of the following?
  172. Ileum, jejunum, duodenum
  173. Duodenum, ileum, jejunum
  174. Jejunum, duodenum, ileum
  175. Duodenum, jejunum, ileum
  176. This structure increases the surface area of the lining of the small intestine ________.
  177. Peptase
  178. Lacteals
  179. Villi
  180. Chyle
  181. Pancreatic juice contains enzymes that help digest ________.
  182. Carbohydrates
  183. Fats
  184. Proteins
  185. All of the above
  186. The order in which material passes through the large intestine is ________.
  187. Descending colon, transverse colon, ascending colon, cecum
  188. Ascending colon, cecum, transverse colon, descending colon
  189. Cecum, descending colon, transverse colon, ascending colon
  190. Cecum, ascending colon, transverse colon, descending colon
  191. The process of carbohydrate digestion begins in the ________.
  192. Mouth
  193. Stomach
  194. Small intestine
  195. Large intestine
  196. Which of the following is the end product of protein digestion?
  197. Fatty acids
  198. Glycerol
  199. Simple sugars
  200. Amino acids
  201. Protein digestion begins in the ________.
  202. Mouth
  203. Stomach
  204. Small intestine
  205. Large intestine
  206. Which of the following is the end product of fat digestion?
  207. Amino acids
  208. Glycerol
  209. Simple sugars
  210. Both a and b
  211. An acute or chronic inflammation of the stomach is called ________.
  212. Colitis
  213. Stomatitis
  214. Gastritis
  215. Gastric ulcer
  216. A ________ is an ulcer occurring in the lower portion of the esophagus, stomach, and duodenum caused by the breakdown of the mucosal membrane by the acid of gastric juices and pepsin.
  217. Duodenal ulcer
  218. Stomatitis
  219. Gastritis
  220. Peptic ulcer
  221. ________ is/are varicose veins of the rectum.
  222. Rectitis
  223. Hemorrhoids
  224. Colostomy
  225. None of the above
  226. A hernia or out-pouching of intestines into the inguinal region of the body is called a(n) ________
  227. Diaphragmatic hernia
  228. Umbilical hernia
  229. Inguinal hernia
  230. Hiatal hernia
  231. ________ is inadequate absorption of nutrients from the intestinal tract. It is caused by a variety of diseases and disorders of the pancreas and gallbladder.
  232. Cystic fibrosis
  233. Malabsorption syndrome
  234. Pancreatitis
  235. Hepatitis
  236. ________ is an infectious or inflammatory process of the peritoneum.
  237. Colitis
  238. Hepatitis
  239. Pancreatitis
  240. Peritonitis
  241. ________ are small growths that contain a pedicle or foot-like attachment in the mucous membranes of the large colon.
  242. Diverticulitis
  243. Ulcerative colitis
  244. Polyps
  245. Inflammatory bowel disease

Short Answer

Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question.

  1. The gastrointestinal system takes in, or ____________, raw materials.
  2. The gastrointestinal system breaks down, or ____________, materials.
  3. Another name for the digestive tract is the ____________ (GI) tract.
  4. During swallowing, the _______________ prevents food from entering the nasal cavity.
  5. The action of chewing is known as ____________.
  6. Materials are eliminated from the digestive tract by ____________.
  7. The small intestine has projections on the surface of its epithelial cells known as ______________ which increase surface area.
  8. Internally, the teeth are made of ____________.
  9. The ____________ is a flap of tissue that covers the airway to the lungs.
  10. Deciduous teeth are commonly called ____________ teeth, because they fall out.
  11. The rhythmic, muscular contraction of the digestive system is known as ____________.
  12. Partially digested food is known as ____________.
  13. The chief digestive enzyme in the stomach is ____________.
  14. The _____________________ phase of gastric activity begins when you see or smell food.
  15. The peritoneum has drapes of membrane known as ____________________.
  16. The digestive tract begins in the mouth and ends at the ________.
  17. Inflammation of the appendix is called ________.
  18. ________ is the muscle action that mixes chyme with digestive juices.
  19. The condition of stones in the gallbladder is ________.
  20. The esophagus does not have a mucus barrier to protect it. Chronic acid ________ causes inflammation and then ulceration, and if left untreated, can progress to esophageal cancer.
  21. A gallstone can lodge in the bile ________, causing extreme pain that may radiate to the right shoulder (an example of referred pain).
  22. Excessive consumption of alcohol can cause ________.
  23. Periodontal disease is the major cause of tooth loss in ________.
  24. When fluids in the small intestine are rushed through the large intestine before the water is adequately re-absorbed, ________ is the result.
  25. Heartburn occurs when the lower esophageal sphincter doesn’t close properly, allowing gastric juices back into the ________.
  26. Stomach ulcers are likely due to defective gastric mucosa or a weak pyloric ________.
  27. Stones can form from substances in the bile while it is stored in the gallbladder. This condition is called ________.
  28. ________, also known as dental cavities, is the gradual decay of teeth that can result in inflamed tissue.
  29. The tongue pushes the food into a ball-like mass called a(n) ________ so it can be passed on to the pharynx.
  30. A large ________ salivary gland is found slightly inferior and anterior to each ear. These are the ones that swell up and make you look like a chipmunk when you get the mumps.
  31. The first set of teeth are called ________ (baby) teeth, and they fall out in time.
  32. ________ is an acute or chronic inflammation of the stomach due to infection, spicy foods, excess acid production, stress, alcohol, aspirin consumption, or heavy smoking.
  33. The nasopharynx is blocked by the soft palate, and a flap of tissue called the ________, a part of the larynx, covers the airway to the lungs as the trachea rises ­during swallowing.
  34. Dental ________ (cavities) are a result of microorganisms attacking tooth enamel.
  35. ________ disease is the major cause of tooth loss in the adult population.
  36. ________ is the term for a loss of appetite.
  37. ________ is the inflammation of the gallbladder.
  38. ________ is the formation of stones or calculi in the gallbladder or common bile duct.
  39. ________ is a chronic inflammatory disease of the liver, leading to irreversible scarring and destruction of active liver tissue.
  40. ________ disease is a form of chronic inflammatory bowel disease affecting the ileum and/or colon.
  41. ________ reflux disease is the erosion of the esophageal lining due to acid reflux, often due to a weakened lower esophageal sphincter.
  42. ________ is the inflammation of the gums that may lead to tooth loss.
  43. ________ is the discharge of purulent material from dental tissue.

True/False

Write ‘T’ if the statement is true and ‘F’ if the statement is false.

____ 1.    ‑The oral cavity is lined with stratified squamous epithelium.

____ 2.    Canine teeth are transitional teeth.

____ 3.    ‑The hardest biologically manufactured substance is enamel.

____ 4.    ‑The oropharynx is lined with respiratory mucosa.

____ 5.    ‑The stomach can increase its diameter because of rugae.

____ 6.    ‑Directly after leaving the stomach, materials go to the jejunum.

____ 7.    ‑Pepsin is one of very few enzymes which are active at very low pH.

____ 8.    ‑The final door of the stomach that needs to open for chyme to travel to the small intestine is the fundus.

____ 9.    ‑The descending colon is the first part of the large intestine.

____10.   ‑The liver stores Vitamins A, B12, K, and C.

____11.   The pH of chyme is usually 7.5-8.8.

____12.   Cholelithiasis means high cholesterol.

____13.   ‑Cirrhosis A, B, C, D, and E are viruses that damage the liver.

____14.   Salivary amylase digests proteins.

____15.   ‑Gastrin is released when chyme enters the duodenum.

Essay

Write your answer in the space provided or on a separate sheet of paper.

  1. List the organs of the alimentary canal in order from mouth to anus.

____________________________________________

____________________________________________

____________________________________________

____________________________________________

  1. Explain the hormonal control of digestion.

____________________________________________

____________________________________________

____________________________________________

____________________________________________

  1. Define and describe GERD.

____________________________________________

____________________________________________

____________________________________________

____________________________________________

  1. Discuss the function of each of the parts of the alimentary canal.

____________________________________________

____________________________________________

____________________________________________

____________________________________________

  1. Describe the anatomy of the peritoneum. How is peritoneum different from other serous membranes?

____________________________________________

____________________________________________

____________________________________________

____________________________________________

Chapter 17

Multiple Choice

Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.

  1. Without functioning kidneys, fluid and ion ___________ would kill you in a matter of days.
  2. Imbalance
  3. Equilibrium
  4. Reactions
  5. Impurities
  6. The kidneys are covered by a layer of connective tissue called the ________.
  7. Renal pelvis
  8. Renal sinus
  9. Renal capsule
  10. Renal hilum
  11. What are the vessels that lead to the glomeruli?
  12. Arcuate arteries
  13. Afferent arterioles
  14. Efferent arterioles
  15. Renal arterioles
  16. Blood leaves the kidney through the ________.
  17. Efferent arterioles
  18. Hepatic vein
  19. Renal nephron
  20. Renal vein
  21. Glomerular filtrate is chemically most similar to ________.
  22. Urine
  23. Plasma
  24. Lymph
  25. Cytoplasm
  26. The first section of the nephron loop glomerular filtrate encounters is the ________.
  27. Ascending loop
  28. Distal tubule
  29. Descending loop
  30. Proximal tubule
  31. What is the most common cause of prolonged vasoconstriction in the kidney?
  32. Increased blood pressure
  33. Decreased blood pressure
  34. Antidiuretic hormone
  35. Diabetes mellitus
  36. What are the three processes necessary for the formation of urine?
  37. Intake, concentration, and output
  38. Chemical, muscular, and neural action
  39. Filtration, reabsorption, and secretion
  40. Arterioles, nephrons, and venules
  41. If blood pressure drops below normal range, what should happen to glomerular filtration rate, to compensate?
  42. It should decrease
  43. It should increase
  44. It should stay the same
  45. It depends on the situation
  46. ____________ is the mechanism used to protect the glomerulus from minor changes in blood pressure.
  47. Filtration
  48. Saturation
  49. Autoregulation
  50. Selection
  51. Anything that will affect reabsorption and secretion in the kidney will affect urine ________.
  52. Chemistry
  53. Flow
  54. Accumulation
  55. Filtration
  56. Hormones that regulate blood pressure also affect
  57. Number of nephrons
  58. Permeability of glomerular capsule
  59. Reabsorption and secretion
  60. Ureters and urethra
  61. Which steroid is secreted by the adrenal cortex to increase reabsorption of sodium ions?
  62. Antidiuretic hormone
  63. Aldosterone
  64. Adrenalin
  65. Angiotensin
  66. New research has shown that urination is actually controlled by the ________.
  67. Kidney
  68. Bladder
  69. Pons
  70. Ureters
  71. Urinary tract infections are often caused by ____________ bacteria in the urinary tract.
  72. Symbiotic
  73. Fecal
  74. Abdominal
  75. Intestinal
  76. Bowman’s capsule, the renal membrane that surrounds the glomerulus, is also called the ________.
  77. Renal corpuscle
  78. Glomerular capsule
  79. Renal tubule
  80. Glomerular filtrate
  81. Substances are moved through a filter by differences in ________ across the filter.
  82. Pressure
  83. Openings
  84. Tubules
  85. Vessels
  86. Which part of the renal tubular system reabsorbs or secretes the most substances?
  87. Distal Tubule
  88. Collecting duct
  89. Proximal Tubule
  90. Descending loop
  91. Substances that are reabsorbed or secreted in the ascending loop include ________.
  92. Sodium
  93. Potassium
  94. Chloride
  95. All of the above
  96. The patient with diabetes insipidus will have copious amounts of ________ urine.
  97. Toxic
  98. Concentrated
  99. Cloudy
  100. Dilute
  101. One of the most important risk factors for kidney disease is ________.
  102. Hypertension
  103. ACE inhibitors
  104. Hypotension
  105. Vasodilation
  106. Kidney stones can be caused by any of the following except ________.
  107. Kidney infection
  108. Calcium
  109. Uric acid
  110. Potassium
  111. The only cure for end-stage renal disease is ________.
  112. Peritoneal dialysis
  113. Lithotripsy
  114. Blood transfusion
  115. Kidney transplant
  116. Ischemia of the kidneys (as well as any other organ) is tissue injury from too little ________ to the tissues.
  117. Hormones
  118. Oxygen
  119. Glucose
  120. Water
  121. Which of the following is not a function of the urinary system?
  122. Removing waste products from the blood
  123. Maintaining the proper electrolyte balance in the blood
  124. Maintaining the proper pH level of the blood
  125. All of the above are functions of the urinary system
  126. Which of the following statements is untrue of the kidneys?
  127. The right kidney is slightly higher than the left kidney.
  128. The kidneys are outside the peritoneal cavity.
  129. The kidneys are surrounded by a layer of fat.
  130. The kidneys are affected by blood pressure.
  131. The outermost layer of the kidney is called the ________.
  132. Renal pelvis
  133. Renal medulla
  134. Renal cortex
  135. Calyx
  136. The innermost layer of the kidney is called the ________.
  137. Renal pelvis
  138. Renal medulla
  139. Renal cortex
  140. Calyx
  141. Which of the following parts of the kidney is actually an expansion of the upper end of the ureter?
  142. Renal pelvis
  143. Renal medulla
  144. Renal cortex
  145. Calyx
  146. Which of the following is considered the first segment of the renal tubules?
  147. Glomerulus
  148. Proximal convoluted tubule
  149. Distal convoluted tubule
  150. Collecting tubule
  151. Which of the following structures drains into the collecting ducts?
  152. Glomerulus
  153. Proximal convoluted tubule
  154. Distal convoluted tubule
  155. Loop of Henle
  156. Even though this structure is part of the circulatory system, it is included in the discussion of the urinary system ________.
  157. Glomerulus
  158. Proximal convoluted tubule
  159. Renal pelvis
  160. Loop of Henle
  161. The juxtaglomerular apparatus of the kidneys release a hormone ________.
  162. Called antidiuretic hormone
  163. That dilates blood vessels
  164. That causes vasoconstriction
  165. That increases the absorption of chloride from the filtrate
  166. The process by which most of the material in the nephron moves back into the blood is called ________.
  167. Filtration
  168. Reabsorption
  169. Secretion
  170. Micturition
  171. This hormone would tend to decrease the amount of urine produced.
  172. Antidiuretic hormone
  173. Aldosterone
  174. Atrial natriuretic hormone
  175. Both a and b
  176. This hormone would tend to increase the amount of urine produced ________.
  177. Antidiuretic hormone
  178. Aldosterone
  179. Atrial natriuretic hormone
  180. Both a and b
  181. The tube that carries urine out of the kidney is called the ________.
  182. Urethra
  183. Collecting tube
  184. Ureter
  185. Bladder
  186. The tube that carries the urine out of the body is called the ________.
  187. Urethra
  188. Collecting tube
  189. Trigone
  190. Ureter
  191. The process by which urine is passed out of the body is called ________.
  192. Urination
  193. Voiding
  194. Mastication
  195. Both a & b
  196. Severe pain, hematuria, fever, chills, nausea, and urinary urgency are symptoms of ________.
  197. Kidney stones
  198. Polycystic kidney disease
  199. Ischemic nephropathy
  200. Diabetic nephropathy
  201. Enlarged cystic kidneys, hypertension, UTI, dilute urine, liver cysts, pain, hematuria, and aneurysm are symptoms of ________.
  202. Kidney stones
  203. Polycystic kidney disease
  204. Ischemic nephropathy
  205. Diabetic nephropathy
  206. This condition is caused by chronic hyperglycemia ________:
  207. Kidney stones
  208. Polycystic kidney disease
  209. Ischemic nephropathy
  210. Diabetic nephropathy
  211. Copious, dilute urine is a symptom of ________.
  212. Uremia
  213. Renal failure
  214. Diabetes insipidus
  215. Urinary tract infection
  216. Painful urination, urinary frequency, nighttime urination, and foul smelling, cloudy urine are symptoms of ________.
  217. Uremia
  218. Renal failure
  219. Diabetes insipidus
  220. Urinary tract infection
  221. Frequent urination without pain or infection is a symptom of ________.
  222. An overactive bladder
  223. Hemolytic uremic syndrome
  224. Urinary tract infection
  225. Uremia
  226. High blood pressure is a common disease that can affect the kidneys. One way of treating high blood pressure is to decrease blood volume by decreasing body water. This can be accomplished by using what kind of drug?
  227. Blood thinners
  228. ACE stimulators
  229. Diuretics
  230. Dopamine
  231. Urine leaves the kidneys through the ________.
  232. Urethra
  233. Ureters
  234. Bladder
  235. None of the above
  236. Urine leaves the bladder through the ________.
  237. Urethra
  238. Ureters
  239. Kidneys
  240. None of the above

Short Answer

Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question.

  1. The ____________ carries urine from each kidney to the urinary bladder.
  2. The space inside the kidney is called the renal ____________.
  3. The collecting ducts empty into _________________.
  4. Blood enters the renal corpuscle via the ____________.
  5. There are no __________________ veins in the kidney.
  6. The ________________are striped areas of the renal medulla.
  7. All of the ___________________ in glomerular filtrate is typically reabsorbed and won’t be in urine.
  8. Long term use of non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs causes ____________ nephropathy.
  9. ____________ is an endocrine disorder characterized by too little anti-diuretic hormone or the insensitivity of the kidney to ADH.
  10. The ____________ is the functional unit of the kidney.
  11. The renin-angiotensin-aldosterone ___________ system is a series of chemical reactions that regulate blood pressure.
  12. ____________ means to crush stones.
  13. The ascending nephron loop is permeable only to _________________.
  14. Sympathetic output causes _________________ glomerular filtration.
  15. PKD stands for ____________ disease.
  16. ________ moves fluid and chemicals into the nephron.
  17. ________ is the movement of molecules from high to low concentrations.
  18. ________ is the movement of water across a semipermeable membrane.
  19. Blood flows to the glomerulus via the ________ arteriole.
  20. Blood flows from the glomerulus into the ________ arteriole.
  21. In both glomerulosclerosis and glomerulonephritis, there is decreased waste product removal and the electrolyte ________ is abnormal.
  22. An infection with the bacteria E. Coli , usually from eating undercooked ________, can cause hemolytic uremic syndrome.
  23. Renal failure is also known as ________ disease, kidney disease, or kidney failure.
  24. When blood flow to the nephrons decreases for a period of time, the oxygen being delivered to the nephron also decreases leading to tissue injury. This injury is classified as ________.
  25. Nephropathy is a term for kidney disease especially when there is damage to the nephron’s ________ apparatus.
  26. There is no cure for PKD except kidney ________.
  27. It is not uncommon for trauma patients to ________ a trauma only to sustain organ damage due to ischemia.
  28. The glomerulus is protected from minor changes in blood pressure by a mechanism called ________.
  29. ________ is a general term for kidney disease particularly damage to the filtering apparatus of the nephrons.
  30. The second factor that affects tubular reabsorption and secretion is a special type of circulation around the nephron loop, called ________ circulation.
  31. ________(ADH) is made by the hypothalamus and secreted from the posterior pituitary when blood pressure decreases or blood ionic concentration increases.
  32. ________ is inflammation of the glomerulus.
  33. ________ is a common condition with symptoms of urinary urgency, nighttime urination, and urinary frequency with or without incontinence, but without pain or obvious urinary pathology such as hematuria or UTI.
  34. The indentation that gives the kidney its bean-shaped appearance is called the ________.
  35. Each afferent arteriole leads to a ball of capillaries called a(n) ________.
  36. Renal pyramids are separated by narrow ________, which are extensions of the cortical tissue.
  37. Kidney stones are caused by increased urine concentration, infection, and kidney disease. They can be made of ________ and uric acid crystals.
  38. ________ kidney disease is a genetic disorder that causes large cysts to form in the kidney.
  39. ________ nephropathy is caused by decreased blood flow to the kidneys.
  40. Diabetic ________ is a type of kidney disease caused by diabetes mellitus.
  41. Drug-induced ________ is a type of kidney disease caused by drugs toxic to kidney tissue, especially contrast dyes and NSAIDs.
  42. ________ is scarring of the glomerulus.
  43. ________ is a blood condition that accompanies kidney disease and appears to be due to the accumulation of organic wastes in the blood stream.
  44. ________ uremic syndrome is a disorder caused by an infection with the bacteria E. Coli , typically from undercooked meat.
  45. Acute renal failure is a rapid decrease in kidney function, as measured by blood urea and ________ levels, that develops over minutes or days.
  46. ________ renal failure is defined as an ongoing, progressive kidney disease of three months or more.
  47. ________ is the inability to control urination.

True/False

Write ‘T’ if the statement is true and ‘F’ if the statement is false.

____ 1.    Medulla means inner portion.

____ 2.    ‑The functional unit of the kidney is the neuron.

____ 3.    ‑More than 40 gallons of blood are filtered every 24 hours.

____ 4.    ‑Filtration is controlled by changing pressure.

____ 5.    ‑A sphincter controls the release of urine.

____ 6.    ‑The ureter is the tubing that transports urine from the bladder to the outside of the body.

____ 7.    ‑Diabetes mellitus is caused by production of too little insulin or by insensitivity to insulin.

____ 8.    ‑The visceral layer of the glomerular capsule is made of specialized cells called podocytes.

____ 9.    ‑The urge to urinate is caused by skeletal muscle contraction.

____10.   ‑Antidiuretic hormone is secreted by the kidneys.

____11.   Aldosterone is a steroid.

____12.   ‑Water is reabsorbed in the descending loop.

____13.   ‑Caffeine promotes the working of antidiuretic hormone.

____14.   ‑Atrial natriuretic peptide has the opposite affect of ADH

____15.   ‑The urinary bladder serves as a reservoir for urine.

Essay

Write your answer in the space provided or on a separate sheet of paper.

  1. Explain how blood loss affects the kidney.

____________________________________________

____________________________________________

____________________________________________

____________________________________________

  1. List and explain three hormones which can regulate kidney function.

____________________________________________

____________________________________________

____________________________________________

____________________________________________

  1. Describe how filtration is regulated.

____________________________________________

____________________________________________

____________________________________________

____________________________________________

  1. Explain how diabetes mellitus affects the kidneys.

____________________________________________

____________________________________________

____________________________________________

____________________________________________

  1. Describe how kidney stones are caused.

____________________________________________

____________________________________________

____________________________________________

____________________________________________

Chapter 18

Multiple Choice

Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.

  1. Which pair of chromosomes would result in the birth of a male?
  2. XX
  3. XY
  4. YY
  5. XZ
  6. In the human life cycle, the fertilized egg is called a(n) ________.
  7. Zygote
  8. Gonad
  9. Embryo
  10. Fetus
  11. Which of the following is an example of primary genitalia in a female?
  12. Oviducts
  13. Vagina
  14. Ovaries
  15. Testes
  16. The outermost layer of the uterus is called the ________.
  17. Perimetrium
  18. Myometrium
  19. Endometrium
  20. Exometrium
  21. The glands that are responsible for the production of milk are called the ________.
  22. Skenes glands
  23. Mammary glands
  24. Lacteal glands
  25. Myometrial glands
  26. What are the primary genitalia in a male?
  27. Epididymis
  28. Ureter
  29. Seminal vesicles
  30. Testes
  31. Menstruation is the term given to the actual shedding of the ________.
  32. Perimetrium
  33. Myometriun
  34. Endometrium
  35. Exometrium
  36. The release of a mature egg from the ovary is called ________.
  37. Ovulation
  38. Fertilization
  39. Menses
  40. Menopause
  41. How many chromosomes will you find in a successfully fertilized egg?
  42. 21 pairs
  43. 46 pairs
  44. 23 pairs
  45. 16 pairs
  46. Of the hormones necessary for menstruation, which one comes from the ovary?
  47. Follicle stimulating hormone
  48. Estrogen
  49. Luteinizing hormone
  50. Testosterone
  51. In utero, the fetus is nourished by the ________.
  52. Umbilical cord
  53. Amniotic fluid
  54. Placenta
  55. Amnion
  56. Labor is divided into stages; in which stage will the baby actually be delivered?
  57. 1st
  58. 2nd
  59. 3rd
  60. 4th
  61. Sperm mature in the ________.
  62. Seminal Vesicles
  63. Epididymis
  64. Testes
  65. Seminiferous tubles
  66. Prior to puberty, testosterone _______________ FSH and LH.
  67. Inhibits
  68. Releases
  69. Has no effect on
  70. Catalyzes
  71. The movement of semen out of the penis is known as ________.
  72. Erection
  73. Arousal
  74. Ejaculation
  75. Semen ejection
  76. Females have all the eggs they will ever have by the age of ________.
  77. 4 months in utero
  78. 8 months
  79. Puberty
  80. 13 years
  81. Breast cancer occurs in the ________ glands.
  82. Genital
  83. Mammary
  84. Vulvar
  85. Endocrine
  86. The reproductive cells are called ________.
  87. Ova
  88. Sperm
  89. Gametes
  90. All of the above
  91. This coiled tube is a comma-shaped structure that lies along the top of and behind the testis ________.
  92. Seminiferous tubule
  93. Ductus deferens
  94. Ejaculatory duct
  95. Epididymis
  96. The gonads include ________.
  97. The ova in the female and sperm in the male
  98. The penis in the male and the vulva in the female
  99. The testes in the male and the ovaries in the female
  100. Both a and c are gonads
  101. After ovulation, the ruptured follicle is transformed into the hormone-secreting structure called the ________.
  102. Corpus luteum
  103. Antrum
  104. Graafian follicle
  105. Granulose cells
  106. Which of the following is not a function of estrogen?
  107. Development and maturation of the female reproductive organs
  108. Initiation of the first menstrual cycle
  109. Appearance of pubic hair and breast development
  110. All of the above are functions of estrogen
  111. The smooth muscle layer of the uterus is called the ________.
  112. Endometrium
  113. Fundus
  114. Cervix
  115. Myometrium
  116. The part of the uterus that lies above the point where the uterine tubes attach is called the ________.
  117. Body
  118. Cervix
  119. Fundus
  120. Myometrium
  121. The narrow, lower part of the uterus is called the ________.
  122. Body
  123. Cervix
  124. Fundus
  125. Myometrium
  126. Which of the following is not true of the vagina?
  127. It is part of the female external genitalia.
  128. It receives sperm during intercourse.
  129. It is the last part of the birth canal.
  130. All of the above are true of the vagina.
  131. The phase of the menstrual cycle that directly precedes ovulation is called ________.
  132. The secretory phase
  133. The proliferative phase
  134. Menses
  135. Menarche
  136. Which of the following is the hormone most responsible for stimulating immature ovarian follicles to start growing?
  137. Estrogen
  138. Progesterone
  139. Follicle-stimulating hormone
  140. Luteinizing hormone
  141. Which of the following is the hormone most responsible for ovulation?
  142. Estrogen
  143. Progesterone
  144. Follicle-stimulating hormone
  145. Luteinizing hormone
  146. The absence of normal menstruation is called ________.
  147. Dysmenorrhea
  148. Amenorrhea
  149. Dysfunctional uterine bleeding
  150. Endometriosis
  151. Failure of the testes to descend into the scrotal sac is called ________.
  152. Hydrocele
  153. Cryptorchidism
  154. Prostatitis
  155. None of the above
  156. An abnormal collection of fluid within the testes is called ________.
  157. Hydrocele
  158. Cryptorchidism
  159. Prostatitis
  160. None of the above
  161. This blood test is for prostate cancer ________.
  162. PAP
  163. SAP
  164. PSA
  165. ASP
  166. This type of cancer is the most common non-skin form of cancer that affects American men ________.
  167. Testicular cancer
  168. Breast cancer
  169. Melanoma
  170. Prostate cancer
  171. This disorder increases with age and is relatively common, with 50% of men between the ages of 40 and 70 having some degree of this disorder ________.
  172. Erectile dysfunction
  173. Incontinence
  174. Prostatitis
  175. Melanoma
  176. A baby born before 37 weeks gestation is considered ________.
  177. Full-term
  178. Late
  179. Premature
  180. None of the above
  181. One of the most important procedures to detect breast cancer at an early, more treatable stage is regular ________.
  182. Pap tests
  183. Breast self-examinations
  184. Testicular self-examinations
  185. None of the above
  186. Signs and symptoms of PMS include all of the following except ________.
  187. Constipation
  188. Fatigue
  189. Mental confusion
  190. Feeling of euphoria
  191. Signs and symptoms of breast cancer include which of the following?
  192. Bloody, brown or serous nipple discharge
  193. Noticeable lump
  194. Changes in breast tissue
  195. All of the above
  196. Signs and symptoms of postpartum depression include ________.
  197. Fatigue
  198. Anxiety
  199. Feeling of worthlessness
  200. All of the above
  201. A procedure in which the amniotic sac is punctured and fluid is withdrawn is called a(n) ________.
  202. Amniocentesis
  203. Abdominocentesis
  204. Thoracentesis
  205. None of the above
  206. This syndrome is a genetic disorder that can result in a broad range of malfunctions of the male reproductive system, from complete lack of external or internal male genitalia to patients with ambiguous genitalia to patients who have typical male genitalia but are sterile.
  207. Testosterone deficiency
  208. Androgen insensitivity syndrome
  209. BPH
  210. ED

Short Answer

Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question.

  1. In animals, females produce eggs and males produce ____________.
  2. ________________ stimulates ovulation.
  3. After ovulation, estrogen _______________ GnRH secretion.
  4. During the _____________ phase, the endometrium is building up.
  5. Reproductive organs are called ____________.
  6. Another name for oviducts is ____________ tubes.
  7. The ruptured follicle left behind in the ovary during ovulation will become the ____________ and secrete hormones to help maintain the thickened endometrium.
  8. The ____________ gland surrounds the urethra.
  9. ____________ is the most important male hormone.
  10. The ____________________ are posterior to the bladder in males.
  11. ______________ is a mixture of sperm, sugar, water and electrolytes.
  12. The final stage of labor is the _____________ stage.
  13. The developing embryo secretes the hormone _______________ telling the woman’s body that she is pregnant.
  14. The implantation of endometrial tissue outside of the uterus is called _______________.
  15. The most common cause of male urinary symptoms is _______ (Use the Abbreviation).
  16. Patients with ____________ have an extra copy of chromosome 21.
  17. The female gonads are the ________.
  18. The fertilized egg is known as the ________.
  19. The breasts are also known as ________ glands.
  20. A(n) ________ is an abnormal collection of fluid in the testes.
  21. Down Syndrome patients have a wide range of ________ abilities.
  22. A common blood test called prostate-specific antigen, (PSA) can help detect ________ cancer.
  23. Erectile dysfunction medications such as Viagra and Levitra increase the likelihood of erection by increasing ________ accumulation in the erectile tissue.
  24. Women have some natural ________ hormone, and males have some natural estrogen hormone.
  25. The possibility of having a baby with Down Syndrome increases dramatically in females over ________ years of age (Use the numeral).
  26. Prostate cancer is the most common cancer (of non-skin cancers) affecting ________ in this country.
  27. When menstrual disorders lessen a woman’s quality of life, they may be diagnosed with ________.
  28. Treatment of erectile dysfunction depends on the ________ cause.
  29. Vaginitis is the inflammation of the vagina, usually caused by microorganisms such as bacteria or ________.
  30. There is a testes-blood barrier to prevent the ________ system from destroying sperm, which the white blood cells would recognize as invaders.
  31. ________ is the expulsion of semen (sperm and assorted chemicals) from the urethra.
  32. Following birth, the baby is often fed with breast milk. One of the complications is ________ which is an inflammation of the breast.
  33. When cells make identical copies of themselves without the involvement of another cell, the process is called ________.
  34. The external female genitalia are known as the ________.
  35. The uterine tubes, which are about 4 inches long and not attached to the ovaries, begin as a large funnel, the infundibulum, surrounded by ciliated projections, the ________.
  36. The process of sorting the chromosomes so that each new cell gets the right number of copies of all of the genetic material is called ________.
  37. The ________ layer of the uterus sheds about every 28 days when a woman has her period.
  38. ________ is the continued proliferation, decay and bleeding of endometrial tissue in the abdominal and pelvic cavities that can cause scarring and damage to the organs.
  39. The ________ is the area between the vagina and the rectum.
  40. The ________ glands are milk production glands housed in the breasts.
  41. ________ is the absence of menstruation.
  42. ________ is painful menstruation.
  43. The exact cause of PMS is not determined but may be due to irregular levels of estrogen or ___________
  44. Signs and symptoms of ________ include hematuria, dysuria, painful intercourse, and excessive menstrual bleeding.
  45. ________ cancer is the most common malignancy among women and the leading cause of death between ages 40–55.
  46. ________ cancer may have a genetic predisposition, and current research shows a connection with the HPV and early and frequent sexual activity.
  47. ________ is an inflammation of the vagina caused by infection, irritation, or menopause.
  48. ________ is a condition in which the placenta separates from the uterus.
  49. ________ pregnancy is also known as a tubal pregnancy.
  50. Benign prostatic hyperplasia or________ is the non-cancerous enlargement of the prostate and is the most common cause of lower urinary tract symptoms in men.

True/False

Write ‘T’ if the statement is true and ‘F’ if the statement is false.

____ 1.    ‑Just before ovulation, estrogen levels drop.

____ 2.    ‑Normally, an adult human has 23 chromosomes.

____ 3.    GnRH is released by the pituitary gland.

____ 4.    ‑The union of genetic material is called fertilization.

____ 5.    ‑The external genitalia of the female are known as the uvula.

____ 6.    HCG is secreted by the ovary.

____ 7.    ‑The functional layer of endometrium is shed when a woman has her period.

____ 8.    ‑The prepuce is a small erectile structure in women.

____ 9.    The epididymis is superior to the testis.

____10.   ‑LH and FSH stimulate sperm production and maturation.

____11.   ‑Erection is caused by muscle contraction in the penis.

____12.   ‑The spermatic cord consists of the seminal vesicles and seminiferous tubules.

____13.   ‑The testes are outside of the abdominopelvic cavity.

____14.   ‑The female reproductive system is hospitable to sperm.

____15.   ‑An egg may be fertilized by more than one sperm.

Essay

Write your answer in the space provided or on a separate sheet of paper.

  1. Trace the path of a sperm during ejaculation.

____________________________________________

____________________________________________

____________________________________________

____________________________________________

  1. Discuss endometriosis.

____________________________________________

____________________________________________

____________________________________________

____________________________________________

  1. List and briefly explain the function of hormones controlling female reproduction.

____________________________________________

____________________________________________

____________________________________________

____________________________________________

  1. Explain the role of testosterone in male reproduction.

____________________________________________

____________________________________________

____________________________________________

____________________________________________

  1. List the phases of the female reproductive cycle and briefly define them.

____________________________________________

____________________________________________

____________________________________________

____________________________________________

Chapter 19

Multiple Choice

Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.

  1. Forensic science is the application of science to ________.
  2. Medicine
  3. Biology
  4. Crime
  5. History
  6. What part of long bones contain high levels of oxygen?
  7. Medulla
  8. Ends
  9. Shaft
  10. Marrow
  11. What common food reacts with pewter and was once thought to be poisonous?
  12. Tomatoes
  13. Apples
  14. Figs
  15. Bananas
  16. The male and female skeleton differ in what manner?
  17. Females have a wider pelvis
  18. Males have a wider pelvis
  19. Females have fewer rib bones
  20. Males have more rib bones
  21. A timeline containing substances someone ingests, or becomes exposed to, can be found in the ________.
  22. Hair
  23. Bones
  24. Teeth
  25. Eyes
  26. Fingerprints were first suggested to be an aid in solving various crimes in ________.
  27. 1910
  28. 1782
  29. 1604
  30. 1880
  31. DNA fingerprinting is performed in which manner?
  32. Blotting digits on paper
  33. Splitting DNA molecules
  34. Dusting the scene with powder
  35. Dusting cells for very small prints
  36. Patients between the ages of 76 and 84 are classified as ________.
  37. Elite old
  38. Younger old
  39. Older old
  40. Beginning old
  41. The hallmark sign of aging is the body’s decreased ability to ________.
  42. Adapt to stressors
  43. Maintain homeostasis
  44. Maintain hair color
  45. Maintain skin elasticity
  46. What is a common food that may taste metallic to the geriatric patient?
  47. Tomato juice
  48. Orange juice
  49. Apple juice
  50. Grape juice
  51. What are some of the potential behavior changes related to pain?
  52. Euphoria
  53. Increased mobility
  54. Increased energy
  55. Agitation and confusion
  56. A healthy human brain will continue to develop until the approximate age of ________.
  57. 50
  58. 60
  59. 25
  60. 35
  61. A decrease in the function of the ____________ can lead to accumulation of medication in the geriatric patient.
  62. Kidneys
  63. Heart
  64. Lungs
  65. Vessels
  66. Seeing multiple doctors at the same time can lead to ________.
  67. Loss of insurance
  68. Carcinoma
  69. Polypharmacy
  70. Increased agitation
  71. Carpal tunnel syndrome is a result of damage to the ____________ nerve.
  72. Carpal
  73. Lateral
  74. Median
  75. Radial
  76. Disease processes, along with aging, will ________ the loss of body reserves affecting recovery after surgery.
  77. Accelerate
  78. Decrease
  79. Slow
  80. Diminish
  81. The elderly are increasingly more difficult to medically evaluate due to the three major changes in the patients. Which of the following is not one of them?
  82. Worsening vision
  83. Decreased hearing
  84. Increased memory
  85. Possible mental abilities
  86. Which lifestyle choice adversely affects the cardiovascular system, as well as other systems?
  87. Illegal drug use
  88. Smoking
  89. Drinking alcohol
  90. All of the above
  91. The best way to protect yourself and others from spreading or getting infections is to ________.
  92. Wear gloves for every patient encounter
  93. Wash hands before and after each patient
  94. Take large doses of vitamin C
  95. Wear a lab coat over your clothes or uniform when with patients
  96. If a fetus does not get enough calcium in the mother’s diet, the fetus ________.
  97. Gets it from converting other nutrients
  98. Breaks down his/her own bones that had developed so far
  99. Does not get enough calcium and may not develop properly because of the lack
  100. Gets it from the mother’s bones and teeth, weakening them
  101. Which of these is not a common behavioral change due to pain?
  102. Being grumpy
  103. Swearing
  104. Having a loss of appetite
  105. Increased social interaction
  106. Smoking mothers have a tendency toward ________.
  107. Babies of lower birth weights
  108. Premature births
  109. A higher rate of SIDS
  110. All of the above
  111. For several hundred years it was believed that ________ were poisonous.
  112. Grapes
  113. Poppy seeds
  114. Tomatoes
  115. Watermelons
  116. A skull fragment found in a 400-year-old trash dump at this settlement provided evidence that skull surgery had been performed on a patient ________.
  117. Mexico City, Mexico
  118. Cairo, Egypt
  119. Beijing, China
  120. Jamestown, Virginia
  121. Currently, the geriatric patient group called the older old are identified as ________.
  122. Age 55 to 64
  123. Age 65 to 75
  124. Age 76 to 84
  125. Age 85 and older
  126. ________ can reveal the race of an individual.
  127. Hair
  128. Eyes
  129. Digestive organs
  130. Clothing
  131. Bone density usually reaches its greatest peak around age ________.
  132. 35
  133. 45
  134. 55
  135. 65
  136. Interest in fingerprints has been around for a long period of time. Their uniqueness was discovered in the ________.
  137. 1200s
  138. 1500s
  139. 1600s
  140. 1800s
  141. A technique called video skull–face superimposition was used to identify ________.
  142. Josef Mengele
  143. Tutankhamen, “King Tut”
  144. Both a and b
  145. None of the above
  146. An older patient may lose up to ________ neurons a day.
  147. 100
  148. 1,000
  149. 10,000
  150. 100,000
  151. Proof that the ancient Egyptians were stricken with ________ was discovered by examining their skeletons.
  152. Tuberculosis
  153. Anthrax
  154. Cancer
  155. Parkinson’s disease
  156. Often, geriatric patients are undermedicated for ________.
  157. Pain
  158. Hypertension
  159. Diabetes
  160. Osteoporosis
  161. One common occupational condition related to repetitive motion, such as typing on a keyboard, playing a piano, or hammering, is known as ________.
  162. Lock jaw
  163. Carpal tunnel syndrome
  164. Incontinence
  165. Osteoporosis
  166. DNA fingerprinting techniques have been used to identify ________.
  167. Victims of the World Trade Center
  168. Thomas Jefferson’s children
  169. Josef Mengele
  170. All of the above
  171. As an individual ages, he or she may lose which of the following?
  172. Muscle mass
  173. Neurons
  174. Bone density
  175. All of the above
  176. The number of taste buds decreases by about ________ percent as the body ages.
  177. 20
  178. 50
  179. 30
  180. 40
  181. Which of the following is a barrier to proper nutrition?
  182. Tooth loss
  183. Difficulty swallowing
  184. Decreased saliva
  185. All of the above
  186. Which of the following can be a trigger to make a cell cancerous?
  187. Genes
  188. Radiation
  189. Sunlight exposure
  190. All of the above
  191. Between the ages of 20 and 80, we lose about ________ percent of our renal function.
  192. 25
  193. 50
  194. 40
  195. 30
  196. The aging process affects the integumentary system in all of the following ways except ______.
  197. Increased skin elasticity
  198. Increased skin delicacy
  199. Multiple skin lesions
  200. Increases in skin cancer
  201. Aging can affect the rates of drug ________.
  202. Absorption
  203. Metabolism
  204. Excretion
  205. All of the above
  206. Approximately ________ percent of all lung cancers can be traced to smoking.
  207. 60
  208. 70
  209. 80
  210. 90
  211. Which of the following vitamins is needed for proper night vision and helps to resist infections?
  212. Vitamin A
  213. Vitamin B
  214. Vitamin C
  215. Vitamin D
  216. Which of the following vitamins is needed to promote strong bones and teeth?
  217. Vitamin A
  218. Vitamin B
  219. Vitamin C
  220. Vitamin D
  221. Which of the following vitamins is needed to promote healthy muscular growth?
  222. Vitamin A
  223. Vitamin B
  224. Vitamin C
  225. Vitamin D
  226. Which of the following vitamins is needed to aid in absorption of iron?
  227. Vitamin A
  228. Vitamin B
  229. Vitamin C
  230. Vitamin D
  231. Which of the following vitamins is needed for proper blood clotting?
  232. Vitamin K
  233. Vitamin C
  234. Vitamin E
  235. Vitamin D
  236. Which of the following vitamins is needed to promote muscle growth, and may reduce the risk of Parkinson’s disease?
  237. Vitamin K
  238. Vitamin C
  239. Vitamin E
  240. Vitamin D

Short Answer

Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question.

  1. Tuberculosis is detectable in the lungs, brain, kidneys, and the ends of long ____________.
  2. The female pelvis, in general, has a pubic angle of ____________ degrees or greater (Use the numeral).
  3. Since hair grows relatively slowly, it can contain a(n) ____________ of substances that an individual ingested or was exposed to.
  4. Forensic scientists can use the molecule found in the nucleus of our cells, ____________, to identify individuals.
  5. The use of multiple medications by the elderly is known as ____________.
  6. Integumentary problems can be reduced by not ____________ and limiting exposure to the ____________.
  7. There is a(n) ____________% decrease in the function of most body systems each year, beginning around the age of thirty (Use the numeral).
  8. In the absence of disease, the brain continues to mature up to the age of ____________ (Use the numeral).
  9. Repetitive motion can lead to a condition called ____________.
  10. Approximately 80% of all lung cancers can be traced to ____________.
  11. ____________ is the most deadly form of skin cancer.
  12. Vitamin ____________ is needed for proper blood clotting.
  13. The human papilloma virus causes genital ____________.
  14. The metal ____________ has been detected in the bones of medieval skeletons and can be traced to eating from pewter plates.
  15. Whether skeletal remains are of a man or a woman can be determined by examining the ____________.
  16. The hallmark sign of aging is the decreasing ability to maintain ________.
  17. A drug taken by a patient with impaired renal function, such as an elderly person, may not be metabolized correctly by the kidneys. This may cause a(n) ________ of the drug.
  18. Carpal tunnel syndrome is a common occupational condition that is related to ________ movements.
  19. Analgesics are stronger and last ________ in the elderly patients.
  20. The lung’s initial response to an inhaled irritant is to ________ or restrict the airway and minimize the inhalation of more irritant, even though this makes breathing difficult.
  21. Aging affects the rates of a drug’s absorption, its distribution through the body, the metabolism of the medication, and the ________ of the drug from the body.
  22. Many triggers can make a cell cancerous, such as exposure to sunlight, radiation, and ________.
  23. Cancer treatment often involves ________ as much of the cancer as possible, and then following up with radiation and/or chemotherapy to kill any cancer or cancer cells remaining in the body.
  24. ________ is the treatment of cancer with chemicals that kill rapidly dividing cells.
  25. ________ cause(s) cauliflower-like growths on the penis and vagina.
  26. ________, the administration of many drugs at the same time, is a major concern for the elderly.
  27. Many types of cancer can be prevented or managed with a healthy diet and ________.
  28. The congenital condition of ________ can be prevented by a dietary supplement of a member of the vitamin B complex, folic acid.
  29. Fingerprints are actual ________ that form a pattern on the anterior surface of the hands and also on the plantar surface of the feet.
  30. The ________ pelvis is more funnel shaped and is heavier and stronger, with a pubic angle of 90 degrees or less.
  31. Bone scouring is the destruction of the smooth bone surface as a result of colonization by the tuberculosis ________.
  32. During the aging process, there is a decrease in the total body water for both males and females. The clinical significance of this is that older patients have a tendency to ________ more rapidly.
  33. The senses of taste and smell ________ as a natural process of aging.
  34. Within the cardiovascular system, the aging process causes such changes as ________ of heart valves, which decreases their efficiency.
  35. Within the cardiovascular system, we also see a lessening in the ________ of blood vessels, which leads to increased blood pressures.
  36. There is an increase of ________, which is the loss of bladder control, in the elderly population.
  37. ________ is the administration of many drugs at the same time.
  38. Smoking affects the heart by reducing the availability of ________ to the heart muscle.
  39. Smoking with alcohol consumption leads to a(n) ________ in stomach and mouth cancers.
  40. ________ steroids are used to increase strength and endurance rapidly and to build muscle mass.
  41. Smoking mothers tend to have babies of ________ birth weights, a tendency toward premature births, and a higher rate of sudden infant death syndrome (SIDS).
  42. The sexually transmitted disease ________ has symptoms of fluid-filled vesicles on the penis and blisters in and around the vagina.
  43. The sexually transmitted disease ________ has symptoms of purulent discharge from the urethra, dysuria, and urinary frequency in males; and purulent vaginal discharge, abnormal menstrual bleeding, and possible sterility in females.
  44. The sexually transmitted disease ________ can be asymptomatic.
  45. The sexually transmitted disease ________ is a systemic disease that can lead to lesions, lymph node enlargement, nervous system degradation, and chancre sores.
  46. This sexually transmitted disease ________ creates cauliflower-like growths on the penis and vagina.

True/False

Write ‘T’ if the statement is true and ‘F’ if the statement is false.

____ 1.    ‑Forensic science is the application of science to law.

____ 2.    ‑The infamous Nazi Mengele has never been found.

____ 3.    ‑Forensic DNA evidence is the only way to identify the sex of the victim.

____ 4.    ‑The race of the individual can be determined by examining their hair.

____ 5.    ‑In children is it nearly impossible to tell the sex of a skeleton.

____ 6.    ‑The most common cause of respiratory illness is genetic disorders.

____ 7.    ‑Identical twins will have the same fingerprints.

____ 8.    ‑Forensic science has conclusively proved that Thomas Jefferson did not father children with his slave, Sally Hemmings.

____ 9.    ‑From ages 20 to 70 we see a loss of lean body mass due to up to 30% loss in the number of muscle cells, atrophy of muscle cells, and a general decrease in muscle strength.

____10.   ‑As we age, our gustatory senses become stronger to compensate for hearing and vision loss.

____11.   ‑Often geriatric patients are under-medicated for pain.

____12.   ‑A diet rich in sodium and vitamins helps to maintain good bone growth and development.

____13.   It is important to stay well-hydrated.

____14.   ‑Due to its sterile nature, urine can be used to clean a wound.

____15.   ‑Spina bifida can be prevented by adequate ascorbic acid ingestion during pregnancy.

Essay

Write your answer in the space provided or on a separate sheet of paper.

  1. Discuss how forensic scientists solve mysteries.

____________________________________________

____________________________________________

____________________________________________

____________________________________________

  1. Discuss how vitamin deficiencies affect health.

____________________________________________

____________________________________________

____________________________________________

____________________________________________

  1. Explain how DNA is used to solve crimes or identify remains.

____________________________________________

____________________________________________

____________________________________________

____________________________________________

  1. List five symptoms of sexually transmitted diseases.

____________________________________________

____________________________________________

____________________________________________

____________________________________________

  1. List five behavioral choices to improve health.

____________________________________________

____________________________________________

____________________________________________

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