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Primary Care Art and Science 3rd Edition Dunphy Porter Test Bank
ISBN-13: 978-0803622555
ISBN-10: 0803622554
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Chapter 19
Multiple Choice
Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.
____ 1. Which type of heat-related illness involves a core body temperature of at least 104.9oF, acute mental status changes, absent sweat, and tachypnea?
| a. | Heat cramps | c. | Heat exhaustion |
| b. | Heat syncope | d. | Heat stroke |
____ 2. What percentage of burns is involved using the rule of nines if both front legs are burned?
| a. | 9% | c. | 24% |
| b. | 18% | d. | 36% |
____ 3. Which drug commonly prescribed for burns is active against a wide spectrum of microbial pathogens and is the most frequently used agent for partial- and full-thickness thermal injuries?
| a. | Clotrimazole cream (Lotrimen) | c. | Silver nitrate |
| b. | Mafenide acetate (Sulfamylon) | d. | Silver sulfadiazine (Silvadene) |
____ 4. A sunscreen with a sun-protection factor (SPF) of at least what number will block most harmful ultraviolet (UV) radiation?
| a. | 4 | c. | 10 |
| b. | 8 | d. | 15 |
____ 5. Which clinical feature is the first to be affected in increased intracranial pressure (ICP)?
| a. | Decrease in level of consciousness (LOC) |
| b. | Headache |
| c. | Nausea |
| d. | Widening pulse pressure |
____ 6. What is the normal number for the Glascow Coma Scale?
| a. | 7 | c. | 10 |
| b. | 9 | d. | 15 |
____ 7. Which diagnostic test is the best to diagnose a subdural hematoma (SDH)?
| a. | History |
| b. | Positron emission tomography (PET) |
| c. | Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) |
| d. | Computed tomography (CT) scan |
____ 8. Patients with a spontaneous pneumothorax should be counseled that up to what percentage may experience a reoccurrence at some point?
| a. | 10% | c. | 30% |
| b. | 20% | d. | 50% |
____ 9. Most adult poisonings are:
| a. | intentional and self-inflicted. |
| b. | accidental. |
| c. | caused someone wishing to do harm to the person. |
| d. | not attributed to any reason. |
____ 10. Which method is used to remove heavy metals such as lead which are ingested as poisons?
| a. | Chelation | c. | Gastric lavage |
| b. | Dialysis | d. | Bowel irrigation |
____ 11. If a previously frostbitten area becomes frostbitten again after it has healed, what might occur?
| a. | Permanent tissue damage may occur, resulting in necrosis to that body part. |
| b. | The area will be super sensitive. |
| c. | The area is prone to a repeat frostbite. |
| d. | The area is as susceptible as any other area. |
____ 12. What percentage of all visits to the emergency department (ED) are related to wounds?
| a. | 5% | c. | 18% |
| b. | 12% | d. | 24% |
____ 13. Which solution should be used when irrigating lacerated tissue over a wound on the arm?
| a. | Dilute povidone-iodine solution |
| b. | Hydrogen peroxide (H2O2) |
| c. | Saline solution infused with an antibiotic |
| d. | Saline irrigation or soapy water |
____ 14. Which type of burn injury results in destruction of epidermis with most of the dermis, yet the epidermal cells lining hair follicles and sweat glands remain intact?
| a. | Superficial burns | c. | Deep partial-thickness burns |
| b. | Superficial partial-thickness burns | d. | Full-thickness burns |
____ 15. Which carboxyhemoglobin (COHb) level correlates with the clinical symptoms of confusion, lethargy, and ST-segment depression on the ECG?
| a. | Less than 10 percent | c. | 30% COHb |
| b. | 20% COHb | d. | 40% to 60% COHb |
____ 16. Which causes the greatest percentage of mammalian bites?
| a. | Dogs | c. | Humans |
| b. | Cats | d. | Rodents |
____ 17. Which arthropod bite can contain cytotoxic and hemolytic toxins that may destroy tissue?
| a. | Tick | c. | Wasp |
| b. | Brown recluse spider | d. | Stinging caterpillar |
____ 18. Which of the following characteristics separates anaphylaxis from a vasovagal reaction?
| a. | Bradycardia | c. | Severe bronchoconstriction |
| b. | Extreme diaphoresis | d. | Hypotension |
____ 19. Delayed serum sickness–type reactions in response to multiple bee, wasp, or fire ant stings can be managed with which of the following?
| a. | A corticosteroid such as prednisone (Deltasone) 60 to 100 mg, tapered over 2 weeks |
| b. | An oral antihistamine such as hydroxyzine for 2 weeks |
| c. | An H2 blocker such as cimetidine for 1 week |
| d. | 0.1 mg (1 mL of 1:10,000 solution epinephrine) in 10 mL of normal saline (NS) and administer as a slow IV push over 10 minutes |
____ 20. After a head injury, what is it called when air enters into the cerebrospinal fluid (CSF)–filled spaces within the head?
| a. | Pneumocephalus | c. | Battle’s sign |
| b. | Hemotympanum | d. | Raccoon sign |
____ 21. Cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) may leak through the cribiform plate region of the skull following a head injury causing which of the following?
| a. | Ear CSF otorrhea | c. | Nasal CSF rhinorrhea |
| b. | Leakage of CSF from the eye | d. | Leakage of CSF from the mouth |
____ 22. Which classic feature of an epidural hematoma may distinguish it from other skull hematomas?
| a. | Unilateral hemiparesis |
| b. | Loss of speech |
| c. | Temporary hearing loss |
| d. | A brief loss of consciousness, then a brief “lucid” moment, followed a momentary unconsciousness occuring minutes after the injury |
____ 23. A patient with a basilar skull fracture may experience an impaired downward gaze or diplopia from which affected cranial nerve?
| a. | CN II | c. | CN IV |
| b. | CN III | d. | CN V |
____ 24. A history of overuse or excessive force, as opposed to a fall, hyperextension, or twisting of a joint, is more likely related to which musculoskeletal injury?
| a. | A sprain | c. | A partial fracture |
| b. | A strain | d. | A fracture |
____ 25. In a healthy adult, the process of remodeling after a fracture of the humerus takes how long?
| a. | Approximately 4 weeks | c. | 3 months |
| b. | 2 months | d. | 4 months |
Chapter 19
Answer Section
MULTIPLE CHOICE
- ANS: D PTS: 1
- ANS: B PTS: 1
- ANS: D PTS: 1
- ANS: D PTS: 1
- ANS: A PTS: 1
- ANS: D PTS: 1
- ANS: C PTS: 1
- ANS: C PTS: 1
- ANS: A PTS: 1
- ANS: A PTS: 1
- ANS: A PTS: 1
- ANS: B PTS: 1
- ANS: D PTS: 1
- ANS: C PTS: 1
- ANS: C PTS: 1
- ANS: A PTS: 1
- ANS: B PTS: 1
- ANS: C PTS: 1
- ANS: A PTS: 1
- ANS: A PTS: 1
- ANS: C PTS: 1
- ANS: D PTS: 1
- ANS: C PTS: 1
- ANS: B PTS: 1
- ANS: B PTS: 1
