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Psychology Themes and Variations 8th Edition Weiten Test Bank

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Psychology Themes and Variations 8th Edition Weiten Test Bank

  • ISBN-10:0495601977
  • ISBN-13:978-0495601975

 

Description

Psychology Themes and Variations 8th Edition Weiten Test Bank

  • ISBN-10:0495601977
  • ISBN-13:978-0495601975

 

 

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Chapter 10 A–Motivation and Emotion

Student: ___________________________________________________________________________

  1. Homeostasis is a state of
    A. physiological stability.
    B. physiological instability.
    C. psychological stability.
    D. psychological instability.

 

  1. Needs, wants, interests and desires that propel people in certain directions are known as
    A. drives.
    B. motives.
    C. incentives.
    D. habits.

 

  1. An internal state of tension that precedes behavior designed to reduce that tension is referred to as a
    A. fugue.
    B. drive.
    C. need.
    D. biostate.

 

  1. A drive is an internal state of
    A. equilibrium that is motivating.
    B. equilibrium that is nonmotivating.
    C. tension that is motivating.
    D. tension that is nonmotivating.

 

  1. Tension reduction is the goal according to which motivational theory?
    A. drive theory
    B. evolutionary theory
    C. instinct theory
    D. incentive theory

 

  1. According to drive theorists, the foremost motivation for all organisms is to
    A. achieve self-actualization.
    B. maintain homeostasis.
    C. ensure their own survival and the survival of their species.
    D. experience as much pleasant stimulation as possible.

 

  1. Food-deprived rats will learn a new response if given nonnutritive, saccharine-sweetened water as a reward. Thus, the sweet-tasting water is motivating even though no actual hunger reduction takes place. This fact raises questions about
    A. instinct theories of motivation.
    B. sociobiological theories of motivation.
    C. incentive theories of motivation.
    D. drive theories of motivation.

 

  1. Which of the following behaviors is consistent with a drive theory of motivation?
    A. eating an apple when hungry
    B. eating dessert after a large meal
    C. looking up information in the encyclopedia
    D. studying hard to earn an “A” on the test

 

  1. Rita has just finished a large meal at her favorite restaurant. Although she is quite full, when the waiter brings the dessert tray, she orders a piece of chocolate cheesecake. In this instance, Rita’s behavior is LEAST consistent with
    A. incentive theories of motivation.
    B. the expectancy-value theory of motivation.
    C. the self-awareness theory of motivation.
    D. drive theories of motivation.

 

  1. Motives are BEST described as ____ that propel people in certain directions.
    A. biological factors
    B. social factors
    C. drives and incentives
    D. needs, wants, interests, and desires

 

  1. When you are engaging in goal-directed behavior, you may be BEST described as experiencing
    A. drive reduction.
    B. an incentive.
    C. emotion.
    D. motivation.

 

  1. An internal state of tension that motivates an organism to engage in activities that should reduce this tension defines
    A. motive.
    B. incentive.
    C. drive.
    D. emotion.

 

  1. According to drive theory of motivation, if you drink water when you are thirsty, drinking results in
    A. drive production and serves as an incentive.
    B. drive reduction and restores physiological equilibrium.
    C. need production and serves as an incentive.
    D. need reduction and restores physiological equilibrium.

 

  1. An external goal that has the capacity to motivate behavior is
    A. a motive.
    B. a drive.
    C. an incentive.
    D. a need.

 

  1. A bonus of $100.00 for completing a work assignment before a deadline is an example of
    A. an incentive.
    B. a reward.
    C. drive reduction.
    D. a motive.

 

  1. While ____ theories of motivation emphasize internal factors, ____ theories emphasize external factors.
    A. drive; incentive
    B. incentive; drive
    C. biological; drive
    D. incentive; environmental

 

  1. Evolutionary theories of motivation suggest that motives result in behaviors that
    A. restore homeostasis
    B. maximize reproductive success
    C. reduce biological needs
    D. reduce incentives

 

  1. Patrick ate a large breakfast. When he arrived for his 8:00 a.m. class the student next to him offered Patrick a large raisin muffin. Even though Patrick was still quite full from breakfast, he ate the muffin that he was offered. In this instance, Patrick’s behavior can best be explained using
    A. drive theories of motivation.
    B. instinctive theories of motivation.
    C. incentive theories of motivation.
    D. the self-awareness theory of motivation.

 

  1. An external goal that has the capacity to motivate behavior is referred to as
    A. an incentive.
    B. a drive.
    C. a homeostatic mechanism.
    D. an expectancy.

 

  1. Drive theories of motivation are classified as ____ theories, while incentive theories of motivation are classified as ____ theories.
    A. external; internal
    B. sociobiological; sociological
    C. constrained; unconstrained
    D. push; pull

 

  1. Most motivational theorists divide motives into two categories consisting of
    A. want and desire motives.
    B. biological and social motives.
    C. necessary and unnecessary motives.
    D. survival and reproductive motives.

 

  1. According to K. B. Madsen, most motivation theories identify ____ biological needs.
    A. less than 5
    B. 10-15
    C. 25-30
    D. more than 40

 

  1. What do the following have in common: achievement, autonomy, play, and dominance?
    A. They are all drives.
    B. They are all biological needs.
    C. They are all social needs.
    D. They are all social-based biological motives.

 

  1. According to motivation theorists, we would expect people generally to be
    A. more similar in biological than in social needs.
    B. more similar in social than in biological needs.
    C. highly varied in both social and biological needs.
    D. quite similar in both biological and social needs.

 

  1. Imogene grew up in a small town in northern England, Dexter grew up in a large city in West Germany. You should expect that Imogene and Dexter have
    A. the same social needs, but different biological needs.
    B. the same biological needs, but different social needs.
    C. different biological and social needs.
    D. the same biological and social needs.

 

  1. Which of the following is NOT considered a social need in humans?
    A. affiliation
    B. aggression
    C. nurturance
    D. achievement

 

  1. Which category of motives is often acquired through learning and varies depending on an individuals’ experience?
    A. reproductive
    B. survival
    C. biological
    D. social

 

  1. Animals with a surgically destroyed lateral hypothalamus show
    A. excessive thirst and consumption of water
    B. little or no interest in eating and weight loss
    C. excessive overeating and weight gain
    D. little or no interest in sex

 

  1. If, after brain damage suffered in a car accident, a person gained 50 pounds in two months you would MOST likely suspect damage to the
    A. ventromedial hypothalamus.
    B. dorsal hypothalamus.
    C. lateral hypothalamus.
    D. glucostats.

 

  1. Cannon and Washburn (1912) proposed that hunger is caused by
    A. lack of food.
    B. stomach contractions.
    C. low blood sugar.
    D. changes in leptin levels.

 

  1. Dr. Linzle has implanted an electrode in the hypothalamus of a rat. When the rat’s brain is electrically stimulated, the rat starts to eat again, even if it has just finished a large meal. The electrode is most likely activating the
    A. ventromedial hypothalamus.
    B. parvocellular hypothalamus.
    C. magnocellular hypothalamus.
    D. lateral hypothalamus.

 

  1. A laboratory rat has had part of its hypothalamus destroyed by lesioning. The rat seems to have lost all interest in food and is starving itself, even though there is food available. In this case, it would appear that portions of the
    A. lateral hypothalamus have been destroyed.
    B. ventromedial hypothalamus have been destroyed.
    C. parvocellular hypothalamus have been destroyed.
    D. magnocellular hypothalamus have been destroyed.

 

  1. Animals that have lesions in the ventromedial nucleus of the hypothalamus
    A. go for days without sleep.
    B. lose all interest in sex.
    C. overeat and become obese.
    D. ignore food and often starve.

 

  1. Which area of the hypothalamus, containing one group of neurons that are sensitive to incoming hunger signals, and another area that responds to satiety signals, has been singled out as especially important in the regulation of hunger?
    A. ventromedial area
    B. lateral area
    C. arcuate nucleus
    D. paraventricular nucleus

 

  1. Dr. McCardle has implanted an electrode in the hypothalamus of a rat. When the rat’s brain is electrically stimulated, the rat stops eating. The electrode is MOST likely activating the
    A. magnocellular hypothalamus.
    B. ventromedial hypothalamus.
    C. lateral hypothalamus.
    D. parvocellular hypothalamus.

 

  1. In general, contemporary theories regarding brain regulation of hunger tend to focus on which of the following?
    A. neural circuits
    B. anatomical centers
    C. overall size of brain
    D. amount of electrical activity in the hindbrain

 

  1. Which of the following does NOT play a role in the neural circuits involved in hunger?
    A. GABA
    B. serotonin
    C. endogenous opiates
    D. endogenous cannabinoids

 

  1. Ghrelin plays a particularly crucial role in
    A. stimulating hunger.
    B. preventing hunger.
    C. balancing glucose levels.
    D. balancing insulin levels.

 

  1. Levels of ghrelin are increasing in Scott’s neural system. You would predict that Scott will
    A. become hungry.
    B. stop eating.
    C. calm down.
    D. become nervous.

 

  1. Which of the following statements best reflects the current view regarding the role of ghrelin in hunger regulation?
    A. it is associated with both endocrine and nervous systems, and increased food intake
    B. ghrelin levels regulate feelings of satiety in the stomach
    C. decreased ghrelin levels are involved in a lower propensity to feel hungry
    D. high amounts in the brain have been shown to cause refusal to eat in laboratory rats

 

  1. Manipulations that decrease blood glucose level cause ____; manipulations that increase blood glucose level cause ____.
    A. an increase in general arousal; a decrease in general arousal
    B. a decrease in general arousal; an increase in general arousal
    C. a decrease in hunger; an increase in hunger
    D. an increase in hunger; a decrease in hunger

 

  1. When Giselle was in the hospital recently, she received glucose continuously through an intravenous line. As Giselle’s blood glucose levels started to rise, she would have begun to
    A. experience decreased autonomic arousal.
    B. lose interest in food.
    C. feel hungry.
    D. become agitated.

 

  1. Which theory proposes that fluctuations in sugar levels in the blood are monitored and influence hunger?
    A. drive reduction
    B. glucostatic theory
    C. incentive theory
    D. set-point theory

 

  1. Neurons that are sensitive to sugar levels in the blood are referred to as
    A. glucostats.
    B. hypothalamic nuclei.
    C. rheostats.
    D. thalami.

 

  1. According to glucostatic theory, the level of ____ is a primary control mechanism for the regulation of hunger.
    A. cholecystokinin in the bloodstream
    B. glucose in the blood
    C. lipids in the liver
    D. metabolites in the pancreas

 

  1. According to glucostatic theory, the level of ____ is a primary control mechanism for the regulation of hunger.
    A. cholecystokinin in the bloodstream
    B. glucose in the blood
    C. lipids in the liver
    D. metabolites in the pancreas

 

  1. Of the brain structures listed below, which one do scientists currently believe plays a larger role than the other structures in the modulation of hunger?
    A. ventromedial hypothalamus
    B. lateral hypothalamus
    C. dorsal hypothalamus
    D. paraventricular hypothalamus

 

  1. Contemporary theories of hunger focus more on ____ of the hypothalamus rather than on ____ of the hypothalamus.
    A. stimulation; destruction
    B. destruction; stimulation
    C. neural circuits; anatomical centers
    D. anatomical centers; neural circuits

 

  1. William, a subject in a psychology experiment, just received an injection that raised his blood glucose level. William is MOST likely to report
    A. he feels angry.
    B. he feels happy.
    C. he feels hungry.
    D. he does not feel hungry.

 

  1. After consuming food, neural signals from the stomach transmit information to the brain concerning
    A. fullness (or the stretching of the stomach wall).
    B. satiety (or how rich in nutrients the contents of the stomach are).
    C. neither fullness or satiety.
    D. both fullness and satiety.

 

  1. The hormone produced by fat cells that tends to diminish feelings of hunger when at high levels is
    A. insulin.
    B. leptin.
    C. adrenalin.
    D. glucose.

 

  1. According to the theory of leptin resistance, overweight people develop
    A. reduced responsiveness to the hunger-suppressing effect of leptin
    B. increased responsiveness to the hunger-causing effect of leptin
    C. reduced levels of glucose due to poor leptin metabolism
    D. increased levels of glucose due to poor leptin metabolism

 

  1. Which of the following is NOT associated with a decrease in hunger or eating behavior?
    A. damage to the lateral hypothalamus
    B. a decrease in blood glucose level
    C. nervous system information indicating stretching of the stomach walls
    D. high levels of leptin in the blood

 

  1. Which of the following statements regarding the role of insulin in hunger is least accurate?
    A. Insulin is a hormone secreted by the pancreas.
    B. Insulin must be present for cells to utilize glucose.
    C. Increased insulin secretion causes increased hunger.
    D. Diabetics have too much insulin.

 

  1. Based on the interaction between glucose levels and insulin levels in the body, you should expect that laboratory rats with artificially reduced levels of insulin will
    A. tend to overeat and gain weight.
    B. stop eating, but still gain weight.
    C. stop eating and lose weight.
    D. show an increase in activity in the ventromedial hypothalamus.

 

  1. Which of the following statements BEST reflects the current view regarding the role of leptin in hunger regulation?
    A. the presence of leptin in the bloodstream tends to increase feelings of hunger.
    B. leptin levels apparently regulate the hunger centers located in the stomach.
    C. when leptin levels are high, the propensity to feel hungry diminishes.
    D. an excessive amount of leptin in the brain has been associated with obesity in rats.

 

  1. Which of the following would NOT be considered an environmental factor in the regulation of hunger?
    A. stress
    B. hormonal fluctuations
    C. food-related cues
    D. learned preferences and habits

 

  1. Janis knows that you have been studying eating behavior in your psychology class and asks you to explain why, in spite of her best interests she always overeats on Thanksgiving day when she is at her parents house. Which of the following would be the LEAST likely claim you would tell her?
    A. She consumes more food because of the quantity of food that is presented; the more food served, the more she is likely to eat.
    B. She is likely to consume more food because of the variety of food that is presented; the more variety of foods served, the more she is likely to eat.
    C. She consumes more food because she is in the presence of other people and tends to linger at the table longer.
    D. She consumes more food because in the cooler months insulin levels tend to increase and when insulin levels increase people tend to eat.

 

  1. Sensory-specific satiety refers to
    A. the phenomenon that when there are few foods available the appeal of them can decline quickly.
    B. the phenomenon that when there are many foods available the appeal of them can decline quickly.
    C. the phenomenon that when there are few foods available the appeal of them can quickly increase.
    D. the phenomenon that when there are many foods available people will quickly tire of them and stop eating.

 

  1. When Harvey was a child the only time he ate turnips was when he was at his grandmother’s house for Christmas dinner. Now, as an adult, Harvey loves the taste of turnips because he associates them with Christmas at his grandmother’s house. In this example, Harvey’s preference for the taste of turnips could best be explained using principles of
    A. observational learning.
    B. classical conditioning.
    C. homeostatic conditioning.
    D. genetic predispositions.

 

  1. Mr. Knez is trying to get his 7-year-old daughter to eat some vegetable-fried rice for the first time. Mr. Knez should be most successful in getting his daughter to sample the new dish if he
    A. tells his daughter she won’t get any desert until she tries some of the fried rice.
    B. eats some of the fried rice first, and shows a favorable reaction while he eats it.
    C. carefully describes all the ingredients that are in the fried rice.
    D. mixes it in with some other food that she enjoys eating.

 

  1. Environmental factors associated with the regulation of hunger and eating behavior include all of the following EXCEPT
    A. how much time has passed since a person’s last meal.
    B. the tastiness of available food.
    C. a “rumbling” stomach.
    D. classical conditioning and observational learning.

 

  1. Research suggests that people experiencing high levels of stress are MOST likely to increase their consumption of
    A. all foods.
    B. tasty foods.
    C. highly nutritional foods.
    D. low-calorie foods.

 

  1. Which of the following statements regarding the influence of stress on eating behavior is LEAST accurate?
    A. Stress leads to increased eating in a substantial portion of people.
    B. Stress-induced eating appears to be more common among men than among women.
    C. Stress-induced eating appears to be more common among chronic dieters.
    D. It appears to be stress-induced arousal rather than stress itself that stimulates eating.

 

  1. Many experts prefer to access obesity in terms of
    A. Body Mass Index.
    B. kilograms.
    C. kilograms divided by height.
    D. height divided by weight.

 

  1. Recent surveys indicate that the incidence of obesity in the United States has
    A. increased.
    B. decreased.
    C. remained constant.
    D. virtually disappeared.

 

  1. Which of the following is a measure of weight that controls for variations in height and is increasingly used in research on obesity?
    A. set point
    B. reaction range
    C. body mass index
    D. obesity quotient

 

  1. If a body mass index of over 25 is used as the cut off for obesity, then almost ____ of adults the United States are struggling with weight problems.
    A. 15 percent
    B. 33 percent
    C. 66 percent
    D. 75 percent

 

  1. What BMI level is typically regarded as an indication of obesity?
    A. 25
    B. 29
    C. 30
    D. 35

 

  1. Mortality rates among people who are moderately overweight (BMI 25-29.9) are:
    A. not elevated in today’s population
    B. lower than those of slightly overweight people
    C. higher than those of obese individuals
    D. increasing rapidly

 

  1. Obesity is a significant health problem that places individuals at risk for all of the following EXCEPT
    A. cardiovascular diseases.
    B. hypertension.
    C. stroke.
    D. fibromylagia.

 

  1. What theoretical perspective argues that the increase in obesity in humans is a result of the fact that early humans lived in environments in which there was fierce competition for limited, unreliable food resources and that developed a tendency to consume food when it was present?
    A. cognitive
    B. evolutionary
    C. body-set point
    D. settling-point

 

  1. Dr. Green suggests that when food is plentiful, people have a tendency to overeat, with many people in modern industrialized societies eating excessive amounts of food. Dr. Green’s view is most consistent with the
    A. biological approach.
    B. drive-reduction approach.
    C. evolutionary approach.
    D. environmental cues approach.

 

  1. Which pair of individuals would be expected to be MOST similar in body mass index?
    A. a husband and wife
    B. an adopted child and the adoptive parent
    C. two fraternal twins reared together
    D. two identical twins reared apart

 

  1. Kathy has lost 25 pounds recently through dieting. According to ____ she will have difficulty keeping the weight off because her metabolism will have decreased in order to maintain the fat stores in her body.
    A. set-point theory
    B. settling-point theory
    C. evolutionary theory
    D. dietary restraint theory

 

  1. In studies on adult foster children designed to examine the role of genetic disposition in obesity, researchers have found that the foster children
    A. were more like their biological parents in weight
    B. were more like their foster parents in weight
    C. did not resemble either set of parents in weight
    D. were more like their half-siblings than either set of parents

 

  1. The fact that the correlation in weight between identical twins reared apart is higher than that between fraternal twins reared together suggests that weight is
    A. influenced more by genetics than by environmental factors.
    B. influenced more by environmental factors than by genetics.
    C. affected equally by genetics and environmental factors.
    D. not affected by either genetics or environmental factor.

 

  1. The basic idea behind the set-point theory of body weight is that
    A. the body monitors fat stores and tries to keep them stable.
    B. the body monitors carbohydrate stores and tries to keep them stable.
    C. the body monitors protein levels and tries to keep them stable.
    D. glucostats are critical in weight control.

 

  1. The set point for body weight refers to the
    A. lowest possible weight at which the person can survive
    B. highest weight the person can attain by unrestricted eating
    C. person’s current weight
    D. person’s natural point of stability in body weight

 

  1. According to set-point theory, the body monitors the
    A. level of fat stores in the body to keep it fairly constant.
    B. level of glucose in the bloodstream.
    C. basal metabolic rate to keep it constant.
    D. activity of the hypothalamus.

 

  1. Set point theory implies that people who have
    A. a low set point will have the hardest time losing weight.
    B. a high set point will often regain any weight they lose.
    C. a low set point will often regain any weight they lose.
    D. a high set point will often lose any weight they gain.

 

  1. Set-point theorists propose that people’s set point depends on
    A. their bone structure.
    B. their activity level.
    C. the number of fat cells they possess.
    D. their current body weight.

 

  1. Settling-point theory proposes that weight tends to drift around
    A. a low set point.
    B. the level at which the factors of food consumption and energy expenditure are at equilibrium.
    C. a high set point.
    D. the level at which the factors of food storage and energy expenditure are at equilibrium.

 

  1. Which weight control theory proposes a more optimistic view for those hoping to lose weight?
    A. set point theory
    B. evolutionary theory
    C. settling point theory
    D. neither theory is more optimistic then any other others.

 

  1. The theory that proposes that weight tends to drift around the level at which the constellation of factors that determine food consumption and energy expenditure achieve an equilibrium is
    A. dietary restraint theory.
    B. settling-point theory.
    C. set-point theory.
    D. drive-reduction theory.

 

  1. Masters and Johnson conducted groundbreaking research concerning
    A. sexual orientation.
    B. sexual preferences.
    C. the psychology of the human sexual response.
    D. the physiology of the human sexual response.

 

  1. Which of the following is NOT one of the four phases of the human sexual response?
    A. excitement
    B. refractory
    C. orgasm
    D. plateau

 

  1. Which of the following represents the correct sequence of the phases of the human sexual response?
    A. plateau, excitement, orgasm, resolution
    B. excitement, plateau, orgasm, resolution
    C. plateau, excitement, resolution, orgasm
    D. excitement, plateau, resolution, orgasm

 

  1. Heart rate, respiration rate, and blood pressure increase sharply during which two phases of the human sexual response?
    A. excitement and orgasm
    B. orgasm and resolution
    C. plateau and orgasm
    D. excitement and plateau

 

  1. Justus is reading an erotic story in a men’s magazine when he finds his respiration rate and heart rate increasing. He is also experiencing penile erection. Based on the phases described by Masters and Johnson, Justus is in the
    A. plateau phase.
    B. orgasmic phase.
    C. resolution phase.
    D. excitement phase.

 

  1. Irene is listening to a romance novel while she is on her daily walk. Although she is not walking especially fast, she finds that as she listens to one of the love scenes in the novel her respiration rate and heart rate increase. She is also experiencing vaginal moistness. Based on the phases described by Masters and Johnson, Irene is in the
    A. plateau phase.
    B. orgasmic phase.
    C. resolution phase.
    D. excitement phase.

 

  1. Which of the following statements about the sexual cycle studied by Masters and Johnson is most accurate?
    A. Orgasm is quite different in males and females.
    B. During the refractory period, men cannot experience another orgasm.
    C. The excitement phase occurs much more rapidly in women than in men.
    D. The plateau phase involves a decrease in bodily functions.

 

  1. Penile erection in males and the swelling of the clitoris in females is due to
    A. muscular contractions.
    B. engorgement of blood vessels.
    C. increased blood pressure.
    D. decrease in respiration.

 

  1. Sean and his wife have been kissing and caressing for about 15 minutes. His level of arousal is still increasing, and he has begun to secrete some seminal fluid from the tip of his penis. Based on the phases described by Masters and Johnson, Sean is in the
    A. plateau phase.
    B. excitement phase.
    C. orgasmic phase.
    D. resolution phase.

 

  1. Alayna and her husband have been kissing and caressing for about 15 minutes. Her level of arousal is still increasing, and she can feel some tightening in her vagina. Based on the phases described by Masters and Johnson, Alayna is in the
    A. resolution phase.
    B. plateau phase.
    C. excitement phase.
    D. orgasmic phase.

 

  1. During which phase of the human sexual response cycle does a series of muscular contractions pulsate through the pelvic area?
    A. excitatory phase
    B. resolution phase
    C. orgasm phase
    D. phallic phase

 

  1. Talia and her husband are having sex when Talia suddenly experiences a series of muscular contractions throughout her pelvis. Based on research conducted by Masters and Johnson,
    A. Talia’s muscular contractions are likely to produce an orgasm in her husband.
    B. it will be at least 20 minutes before Talia can become sexually aroused again.
    C. Talia may experience another orgasm without going through a refractory period.
    D. Talia will now pass into the plateau stage of the sexual response cycle.

 

  1. Which of the following statements regarding the human sexual response is LEAST accurate?
    A. It is normal for sexual arousal to vary during lengthy foreplay.
    B. The subjective experience of orgasm is very similar for males and females.
    C. Women are far more likely than men to be multiorgasmic.
    D. Men are more likely than women to engage in intercourse without experiencing an orgasm.

 

  1. Peter and his wife are having sex when Peter’s blood pressure increases sharply, and he experiences a series of muscular contractions throughout his pelvis. Based on research conducted by Masters and Johnson,
    A. Peter is likely to experience several more orgasms before he enters a refractory period.
    B. Peter’s muscular contractions are likely to produce an orgasm in his wife.
    C. Peter will be relatively unresponsive to sexual stimulation for a period of time following his orgasm.
    D. Peter will now pass into the plateau stage of the sexual response cycle.

 

  1. Some theorists argue that women are socialized to be sexually submissive and some data suggests this submissiveness
    A. increases their sexual arousal.
    B. decreases their sexual arousal.
    C. increases sexual arousal in men.
    D. decreases sexual arousal in men.

 

  1. Assume a woman is sexually submissive. Based on research, you would predict this will
    A. enhance her sexual arousal.
    B. decrease her sexual arousal.
    C. enhance the sexual arousal of her male partner.
    D. decrease the sexual arousal of her male partner.

 

  1. Assume a woman is deeply in love with her male partner. Based on research, you would predict this will
    A. enhance her chances of achieving orgasm.
    B. decrease her chances of achieving orgasm.
    C. enhance her male partner’s chances of achieving orgasm.
    D. decrease her male partner’s chances of achieving orgasm.

 

  1. Orgasm consistency seems to be influenced by relationship quality
    A. more in women than men.
    B. more in men than women.
    C. in neither sex.
    D. in both sexes.

 

  1. Which of the following generalizations was NOT supported by Masters and Johnson’s human sexuality research?
    A. Women are more apt than men to have intercourse without orgasm.
    B. The subjective experience of orgasm is very similar for men and women.
    C. Men are more apt to be multiorgasmic than women are.
    D. Sexual difficulties are most typically caused by psychological factors.

 

  1. Both penile erection in men and vaginal lubrication in females occur as a result of
    A. orgasm.
    B. decreased blood pressure.
    C. vasocongestion.
    D. muscular tension.

 

  1. Pat’s sexual arousal just reached its peak intensity and was discharged in a series of muscular contractions that pulsated through the pelvic area. Pat just experienced the ____ phase of the human sexual response.
    A. peak
    B. orgasm
    C. plateau
    D. resolution

 

  1. During which phase of the human sexual response are male-female gender differences MOST pronounced?
    A. excitement phase
    B. plateau phase
    C. orgasm phase
    D. resolution phase

 

  1. Which of the following statements concerning the orgasm phase of the human sexual response is NOT correct?
    A. the subjective experience of orgasm is very similar for men and women
    B. women are more likely than men to engage in intercourse without experiencing an orgasm
    C. women are less likely than men to be multiorgasmic
    D. in men, ejaculation of semen occurs during orgasm

 

  1. The reduction in sexual tension during the resolution phase of the human sexual response is generally relatively slow or more gradual
    A. for males.
    B. for females.
    C. for relatively inexperienced individuals.
    D. if the individual did not experience an orgasm.

 

  1. The period of time following orgasm during which males are highly unresponsive to further stimulation is the
    A. refractory period.
    B. recovery period.
    C. resolution period.
    D. reactionary period.

 

  1. Scott just experienced an orgasm. For about an hour he cannot achieve another orgasm. Scott is in the ____ phase of the sexual response cycle.
    A. excitement
    B. plateau
    C. orgasmic
    D. resolution

 

  1. Annette was experiencing a high level of sexual excitement as her boyfriend kissed and caressed her. However, the phone rang and interrupted them. Her heart rate and respiration rate are slowly returning to normal, but she feels a sense of frustration. Based on the phases described by Masters and Johnson, Annette is in the
    A. resolution phase.
    B. plateau phase.
    C. post-orgasmic phase.
    D. refractory period.

 

  1. Jaden experienced an orgasm just over 30 minutes ago. He is still largely unresponsive to sexual stimulation. Based on the phases described by Masters and Johnson, Jaden is in the
    A. plateau phase.
    B. post-orgasmic phase.
    C. excitement phase.
    D. resolution phase.

 

  1. Which of the following BEST describes the refractory period?
    A. the time between orgasms in multiorgasmic women
    B. a time following female orgasm during which females are largely unresponsive to further stimulation
    C. a time following male orgasm during which males are largely unresponsive to further stimulation
    D. the time between initiation of intercourse and orgasm

 

  1. Both penile erection in men and vaginal lubrication in females occur as a result of
    A. orgasm.
    B. decreased blood pressure.
    C. vasocongestion.
    D. muscular tension.

 

  1. Pat’s sexual arousal just reached its peak intensity and was discharged in a series of muscular contractions that pulsated through the pelvic area. Pat just experienced the ____ phase of the human sexual response.
    A. peak
    B. orgasm
    C. plateau
    D. resolution

 

  1. During which phase of the human sexual response are male-female gender differences MOST pronounced?
    A. excitement phase
    B. plateau phase
    C. orgasm phase
    D. resolution phase

 

  1. Which of the following statements concerning the orgasm phase of the human sexual response is NOT correct?
    A. the subjective experience of orgasm is very similar for men and women
    B. women are more likely than men to engage in intercourse without experiencing an orgasm
    C. women are less likely than men to be multiorgasmic
    D. in men, ejaculation of semen occurs during orgasm

 

  1. The reduction in sexual tension during the resolution phase of the human sexual response is generally relatively slow or more gradual
    A. for males.
    B. for females.
    C. for relatively inexperienced individuals.
    D. if the individual did not experience an orgasm.

 

  1. The period of time following orgasm during which males are highly unresponsive to further stimulation is the
    A. refractory period.
    B. recovery period.
    C. resolution period.
    D. reactionary period.

 

  1. Parental investment theory suggests that males and females
    A. make significant personal investments to produce and nurture offspring.
    B. do not make significant personal investments to produce and nurture offspring.
    C. may develop different mating strategies.
    D. develop similar mating strategies.

 

  1. Which of the following researchers proposed parental investment theory?
    A. David Buss
    B. Walter Cannon
    C. Robert Trivers
    D. Stanley Schachter

 

  1. ____ theory asserts that a species’ mating patterns depend on what each sex has to invest in the way of time, energy, and survival risk to maximize the transmission of its genes to the next generation.
    A. Drive
    B. Inclusive fitness
    C. Parental investment
    D. Physiological equilibrium

 

  1. What theory asserts that a species’ mating patterns depend on what each sex has to invest in the way of time, energy, and survival risk to maximize the transmission of its genes to the next generation?
    A. Drive
    B. Parental investment
    C. Physiological equilibrium
    D. Inclusive fitness

 

  1. Parental investment theory predicts that, in comparison to women, men show ____ interest in sexual activity and ____ willingness to engage in uncommitted sex.
    A. less; more
    B. more; less
    C. less; less
    D. more; more

 

  1. Research into gender differences in sexual behavior shows that, in comparison to women, men show ____ interest in sexual activity and ____ willingness to engage in uncommitted sex.
    A. less; more
    B. more; less
    C. less; less
    D. more; more

 

  1. Research into gender differences in sexual behavior shows that, in comparison to men, women show ____ desire for variety in sexual partners, and ____ interest in sexual activity.
    A. less; more
    B. more; less
    C. less; less
    D. more; more

 

  1. Research into gender differences in sexual behavior shows that, in comparison to men, women are ____ likely to consent to sex with someone that they have known for a brief period of time, and show ____ interest in sexual activity.
    A. less; more
    B. less; less
    C. more; more
    D. more; less

 

  1. Parental investment theory suggests that males and females
    A. make significant personal investments to produce and nurture offspring.
    B. do not make significant personal investments to produce and nurture offspring.
    C. may develop different mating strategies.
    D. develop similar mating strategies.

 

  1. According to parental investment theory, human males can maximize their reproductive potential by
    A. actively contributing to the care of their offspring.
    B. seeking partners who have strength and agility.
    C. being highly selective in mating.
    D. mating with as many females as possible.

 

  1. Parental investment theory suggests all of the following EXCEPT
    A. human males are required to invest little in the production of offspring.
    B. human males compete with other males for the “commodity” of reproductive opportunities.
    C. human females can optimize their reproductive potential by mating with as many males as possible.
    D. males and females may develop different mating strategies.

 

  1. Studies by evolutionary theorists of which of the following topics have drawn the MOST attention?
    A. hunger
    B. aggression
    C. territoriality
    D. sexual behavior

 

  1. Which group tends to overestimate the interest the opposite sex has in them?
    A. women
    B. men
    C. both sexes
    D. neither sex, both are realistic

 

  1. Psychologists who take an evolutionary view argue that natural selection favors behaviors that maximize an individual’s
    A. self-actualization.
    B. acquisition of territory.
    C. reproductive success.
    D. material wealth.

 

  1. Evolutionary theory suggests that men place more emphasis than women on the ____ of a potential mate
    A. social status
    B. youthfulness
    C. ambition
    D. intelligence

 

  1. Evolutionary theory suggests that women place more emphasis than men on the ____ of a potential mate.
    A. height
    B. attractiveness
    C. social status
    D. youthfulness

 

  1. Parental investment theory predicts that in comparison to men, women show ____ desire for variety in sexual partners, and ____ interest in sexual activity.
    A. less; more
    B. more; less
    C. less; less
    D. more; more

 

  1. Evolutionary theory predicts that women should place more emphasis than men on all but which of the following partner characteristics?
    A. ambition
    B. intelligence
    C. social status
    D. physical attractiveness

 

  1. Research into gender differences in mate preference shows that, in comparison to men, women show ____ desire for partners who are intelligent, ambitious and have a high social status and ____ interest in attractiveness.
    A. less; more
    B. more; less
    C. less; less
    D. more; more

 

  1. Research on gender differences in mate preferences has found that
    A. women are indifferent to men’s potential for parental investment.
    B. men favorably disposed to investing in children are seen as more attractive.
    C. women favorably disposed to investing in children are seen as more attractive.
    D. men pay more attention to a potential partner’s willingness to invest in children.

 

  1. In the Featured Study by Buss on judging mate potential, the participants were
    A. American men and women from a wide range of ages.
    B. men and women from the United States and European countries.
    C. male students from the University of Chicago.
    D. women undergraduates from the University of California.

 

  1. Which of the following statements BEST summarizes the findings of the Featured Study on judging mate potential?
    A. the results were consistent with the evolutionary theory
    B. the results from women were consistent with the evolutionary theory, but the results from men were not
    C. the results from men were consistent with the evolutionary theory, but the results from women were not
    D. results were not consistent with the evolutionary theory

 

  1. The Featured Study on judging mate potential found that
    A. men’s ratings of women correlated moderately with the women’s estrogen levels
    B. men’s ratings of women did not correlate with the women’s estrogen levels
    C. women’s ratings of men correlated moderately with the men’s testosterone levels
    D. women’s ratings of men did not correlate with the men’s testosterone levels

 

  1. The Featured Study on judging mate potential found that
    A. men’s ratings of women correlated moderately with the women’s interest in infants.
    B. men’s ratings of women did not correlate with the women’s interest in infants.
    C. women’s ratings of men did not correlate with the men’s interest in infants.
    D. women’s ratings of men correlated moderately with the men’s interest in infants.

 

  1. The results from the Featured Study on culture and mating preferences tend to support which of the following theories of sexual motivation?
    A. cognitive theory
    B. humanistic theory
    C. psychoanalytic theory
    D. evolutionary theory

 

  1. At present, which of the following approaches appears to provide the most complete account for gender disparities in sexual motivation and mating preferences?
    A. operant conditioning
    B. evolutionary theory
    C. social learning theory
    D. sociopolitical theory

 

  1. Which of the following statements concerning erotic material is false?
    A. erotic material increases the likelihood of overt sexual activity for several hours after the exposure
    B. erotic material may alter attitudes in ways that eventually influence sexual behavior
    C. erotic material plays a major role in the commission of sexual offenses
    D. erotic material stimulates sexual desire in many people

 

  1. Which of the following statements concerning erotic material is true?
    A. erotic material increases the likelihood of overt sexual activity for several days after the exposure
    B. erotic material may alter attitudes in ways that eventually influence sexual behavior
    C. erotic material plays a major role in the commission of sexual offenses
    D. erotic material stimulates sexual desire in males but not females

 

  1. Darren has recently been viewing sexually explicit films several times a week. It is MOST likely that Darren might
    A. become more satisfied with his sexual partner’s appearance and behavior.
    B. develop more conservative attitudes about sexual practices.
    C. become dissatisfied with his own sexual interactions.
    D. commit a sexual offense.

 

  1. The type of erotic material that depicts violence against women and may result in an increase in aggressive behavior toward women is referred to as
    A. aggressive pornography.
    B. hate pornography.
    C. hard-core pornography.
    D. soft-core pornography.

 

  1. Which of the following effects has NOT been supported by research?
    A. Viewing erotic materials tends to cause sex crimes.
    B. Viewing erotic materials changes ones attitudes to be more liberal about sexual practices.
    C. Viewing erotic materials may make some people dissatisfied with their own sexual interactions.
    D. Viewing erotic materials elevates the likelihood of overt sexual activity for a few hours immediately after the exposure.

 

  1. Dudley enjoys watching sexually explicit films, especially films that include some violence and aggression. Based on the results from research studies in this area, you might predict that after viewing these types of films
    A. there will be an increase in Dudley’s aggressiveness toward women
    B. there will be a decrease in Dudley’s aggressiveness toward women
    C. Dudley is less likely to find the women that he meets sexually attractive
    D. Dudley will be more likely to seek out bisexual relationships

 

  1. Which of the following statements regarding exposure to erotic material is MOST accurate?
    A. Most evidence demonstrates a strong association between use of pornography and committing sex crimes.
    B. Sexual desire reaches a peak during the exposure, and then quickly abates.
    C. It increases the likelihood of sexual activity for a few hours after the exposure.
    D. Viewing erotic materials makes most people more adventurous in their own sexual interactions.

 

  1. About what proportion of women surveyed on 32 college campuses (Koss, Gidycz, and Wisniewski, 1987) reported having been victimized by date rape?
    A. 2 in 3
    B. 1 in 2
    C. 1 in 7
    D. 1 in 15

 

  1. Research on rape has found that approximately 1 out of ____ women have reported that they have been victimized by date rape or an attempted date rape.
    A. 20
    B. 10
    C. 7
    D. 33

 

  1. A person’s preference for emotional and sexual relationships with individuals of the same, other or either sex refers to a person’s ____.
    A. sexual orientation
    B. homosexuality
    C. bisexuality
    D. heterosexuality

 

  1. A person who seeks emotional-sexual relationships with members of the other sex is referred to as
    A. heterosexual.
    B. homosexual.
    C. bisexual.
    D. monogamous.

 

  1. A person who seeks emotional-sexual relationships with members of either sex is referred to as
    A. heterosexual.
    B. homosexual.
    C. bisexual.
    D. monogamous.

 

  1. A person who seeks emotional-sexual relationships with members of the same sex is referred to as
    A. heterosexual.
    B. homosexual.
    C. bisexual.
    D. monogamous.

 

  1. Which of the following terms is most likely to be used by a homosexual woman to describe her sexual orientation?
    A. gay
    B. lesbian
    C. bisexual
    D. straight

 

  1. Alfred Kinsey argued that homosexuality and heterosexuality are
    A. end points on a “sexual orientation” continuum.
    B. orientations based on early learning.
    C. orientations that are a function of genetics.
    D. value judgments and should be of little concern to scientists.

 

  1. Recent studies suggest that ____ of the population could reasonably be characterized as homosexual.
    A. less than 1 percent
    B. approximately 5 to 8 percent
    C. between 12 and 15 percent
    D. just over 18 percent

 

  1. A person’s preference for emotional and sexual relationships with individuals of the same, the other, or either sex describes the person’s
    A. sexuality.
    B. gender preference.
    C. gender orientation.
    D. sexual orientation.

 

  1. A young man who prefers and seeks emotional and sexual relationships with men has a ____ orientation.
    A. unisexual
    B. bisexual
    C. homosexual
    D. heterosexual

 

  1. An individual who prefers and seeks emotional and sexual relationships with members of the “opposite sex” has a ____ orientation.
    A. heterosexual
    B. homosexual
    C. bisexual
    D. unisexual

 

  1. Approximately ____ of the population can reasonably be characterized as homosexual.
    A. 1%-5%
    B. 5%-10%
    C. 10%-15%
    D. 20%-25%

 

  1. Research concerning the upbringing and childhood experiences of homosexuals has NOT supported ____ theories.
    A. psychoanalytic and behavioral
    B. psychoanalytic and biological
    C. behavioral and biological
    D. biological and cognitive

 

  1. Which of the following statements concerning homosexuality is false?
    A. most homosexuals can trace their homosexual leanings back to early childhood
    B. circulating hormone levels are not linked to sexual orientation
    C. extremely feminine behavior in young boys does not predict the subsequent development of homosexuality
    D. there appears to be a genetic predisposition to homosexuality

 

  1. Which theoretical approach to explaining the origins of homosexuality argues that homosexuality results when a boy is raised by a weak, detached, ineffectual father and an overprotective close-binding mother?
    A. biological
    B. psychoanalytic
    C. operant conditioning
    D. classical conditioning

 

  1. Which of the following statements regarding homosexuality BEST describes the view of the behavioral theorists when it comes to explaining the origin of homosexuality?
    A. In some cases, female homosexuality has been linked to prenatal exposure to abnormally high levels of androgens.
    B. There are anatomical differences in the brain between homosexual and heterosexual men.
    C. Homosexuality is a learned preference acquired when same-sex stimuli have been paired with sexual arousal.
    D. Identical twins of homosexual men are more likely to be homosexual than are fraternal twins of homosexual men

 

  1. Which of the following statements regarding homosexuality best describes the view of the psychoanalytic theorists when it comes to explaining the origin of homosexuality?
    A. In some cases, female homosexuality has been linked to prenatal exposure to abnormally high levels of androgens.
    B. There are anatomical differences in the brain between homosexual and heterosexual men.
    C. Homosexuality is a learned preference acquired when same-sex stimuli have been paired with sexual arousal.
    D. Homosexuality results when a boy is raised by a weak, detached, ineffectual father and an overprotective close-binding mother.

 

  1. Which of the following statements regarding homosexuality has NOT been supported by empirical evidence?
    A. In some cases, female homosexuality has been linked to prenatal exposure to abnormally high levels of androgens.
    B. There are anatomical differences in the brain between homosexual and heterosexual men.
    C. Homosexuality is a learned preference acquired when same-sex stimuli have been paired with sexual arousal.
    D. Identical twins of homosexual men are more likely to be homosexual than are fraternal twins of homosexual men.

 

  1. Recent studies suggest that ____ of highly feminine young boys eventually turn out to be gay.
    A. less than 1 percent
    B. approximately 50 percent
    C. between 75 and 90 percent
    D. just over 18 percent

 

  1. Several lines of research suggest that ____ during critical periods of prenatal development may influence sexual orientation as an adult.
    A. severe physical trauma
    B. hormonal secretions
    C. neural abnormalities
    D. loss of oxygen

 

  1. Research by Bailey and Pillard in 1991 showed that
    A. in some cases, female homosexuality has been linked to prenatal exposure to abnormally high levels of androgens.
    B. there are anatomical differences in the brain between homosexual and heterosexual men.
    C. homosexuality is a learned preference acquired when same-sex stimuli have been paired with sexual arousal.
    D. identical twins of homosexual men are more likely to be homosexual than are fraternal twins of homosexual men.

 

  1. Which of the following approaches to explaining the origins of homosexuality has received the MOST empirical support?
    A. biological
    B. psychoanalytic
    C. operant conditioning
    D. classical conditioning

 

  1. Research by Bailey and Pillard in the 1990s suggested that
    A. homosexuality results when a boy is raised by a weak, detached, ineffectual father and an overprotective close-binding mother.
    B. there are anatomical differences in the brain between homosexual and heterosexual men.
    C. homosexuality is a learned preference acquired when same-sex stimuli have been paired with sexual arousal.
    D. there is a genetic predisposition to homosexuality.

 

  1. Recent research into the biological roots of homosexuality has focused on
    A. the organizing effects of prenatal hormones on neurological development.
    B. the anatomical differences in the brain between homosexual and heterosexual men.
    C. the genetic differences between homosexual men who are identical twins.
    D. hormone level differences between gay and straight men.

 

  1. Research into environmental and sociocultural influence on homosexuality shows that, in comparison to men, women show
    A. greater plasticity in changing their sexual orientation over the course of their adult years.
    B. less plasticity in changing their sexual orientation over the course of their adult years.
    C. more stability in their sexual orientation over the course of their adult years.
    D. more rigidity in their sexual orientation over the course of their adult years.

 

  1. If Ted is a gay man, of the following individuals, who would be most likely to also be gay?
    A. Ted’s Uncle Alan
    B. Ted’s adoptive brother Bob
    C. Ted’s fraternal twin brother Chuck
    D. Ted’s identical twin brother Don

 

  1. Which of the following statements regarding lesbian women is false?
    A. lesbian women are less likely than gay men to trace their homosexuality back to their childhood
    B. lesbian women rarely change their sexual orientation over the course of their adult years
    C. lesbian women are more likely than gay men to indicate that their attraction to the same sex emerged during adulthood
    D. there is an increased rate of homosexuality among women exposed to high levels of androgen prenatally

 

  1. According to David McClelland and his colleagues, what is of the utmost importance?
    A. the quality of their personal relationships
    B. the need for achievement
    C. the number of people they consider “friends”
    D. the size of their immediate family

 

  1. The need to master difficult challenges, outperform others, and meet high standards of excellence is referred to as
    A. an intellect motive.
    B. a power motive.
    C. a competence motive.
    D. an achievement motive.

 

  1. Max has the need to master difficult challenges, to outperform others, and to meet high standards for excellence. According to researchers such as McClelland and Atkinson, Max MOST likely
    A. has high affiliation needs.
    B. is high in achievement motivation.
    C. is low in achievement motivation.
    D. has a high fear of failure.

 

  1. Which of the following needs is NOT generally considered a component of the achievement motive?
    A. outperforming others
    B. meeting high standards of excellence
    C. being accepted by others
    D. desiring to excel

 

  1. A person’s need for achievement is usually assessed using the
    A. Wechsler Adult Intelligence Scale (WAIS)
    B. Minnesota Multiphasic Personality Inventory (MMPI)
    C. Thematic Apperception Test (TAT)
    D. Edwards Manifest Needs Scale (EMNS)

 

  1. The Thematic Apperception Test has been used to assess an individual’s
    A. arousal level.
    B. competence motive.
    C. psychocybernetic motive.
    D. achievement motive.

 

  1. The Thematic Apperception Test is considered ____ test.
    A. an aptitude
    B. a projective
    C. an achievement
    D. a criterion-based

 

  1. The projective test that has been used a great deal to measure affiliation need is the
    A. Thematic Apperception Test.
    B. Minnesota Multiphasic Personality Test.
    C. Sarason Sociability Scale.
    D. Rorschach Ink Blot Test.

 

  1. Royce is telling a story about a character on a TAT card. In his story, Royce focuses on the character’s need to win a contest as she prepares a speech that will be presented. He indicates that the character has spent a great deal of time worrying whether the speech may not be good enough to impress the judges and win the contest. Royce’s response to this TAT card suggests that he MOST likely has
    A. a low need for achievement.
    B. a high need for affiliation.
    C. a high need for achievement.
    D. a low need for affiliation.

 

  1. Breana is telling a story about a character on a TAT card. In her story, Breana focuses on the fact that the character is daydreaming about being promoted to a position of high status at work. Breana’s answer suggests that she MOST likely has
    A. a low need for achievement.
    B. a high need for affiliation.
    C. a high need for achievement.
    D. a low need for affiliation.

 

  1. Alisha is telling a story about a character on a TAT card. In her story, Alisha focuses on the individual’s lack of persistence when undertaking projects, and she also describes how the individual prefers situations that have little competition. Alisha’s answer suggests that she MOST likely has
    A. a low need for affiliation.
    B. a low need for achievement.
    C. a high need for affiliation.
    D. a high need for achievement.

 

  1. Austin is telling a story about a character on a TAT card. In his story, Austin focuses on the character’s desire to succeed, and he describes how unhappy the person will be if she does not succeed in reaching her goal. Austin’s answer suggests that he MOST likely has
    A. a low need for achievement.
    B. a high need for affiliation.
    C. a high need for achievement.
    D. a low need for affiliation.

 

  1. Maria is pursuing a highly competitive career, and she works very hard and persistently at her tasks. Maria’s behavior MOST likely reflects
    A. an external locus of control.
    B. a high achievement motivation.
    C. a high power need.
    D. an obsessive-compulsive personality structure.

 

  1. Which of the following psychologists is MOST closely identified with research on the achievement motive?
    A. David Buss
    B. Henry Murray
    C. Walter Cannon
    D. David McClelland

 

  1. Compared to low scorers, people who score high in the need for achievement
    A. devote more time to interpersonal activities.
    B. worry more about acceptance from others.
    C. tend to work harder and more persistently.
    D. show all of these characteristics.

 

  1. A person high in achievement motivation would be expected to show all EXCEPT which of the following characteristics?
    A. greater persistence on tasks
    B. tendency to seek immediate gratification
    C. tendency to choose competitive occupations
    D. tendency to choose tasks of intermediate difficulty

 

  1. People high in achievement motivation show all of the following characteristics EXCEPT
    A. a tendency to respond poorly to negative feedback.
    B. a tendency to delay gratification in order to pursue long-term goals.
    C. a tendency to work hard on tasks.
    D. a tendency to be persistent on tasks.

 

  1. In a friendly game of horseshoes, you would expect a person high in achievement motivation to choose to stand
    A. very close to the target.
    B. a moderate distance from the target.
    C. very far from the target
    D. either very close to or very far from the target.

 

  1. McClelland’s research with achievement themes in popular literature and the later economic success of a society suggested
    A. a positive relationship between story achievement themes and later economic success.
    B. no relationship between story themes and economic activity.
    C. a negative relationship between story themes and economic activity.
    D. none of these things.

 

  1. Imagine that a sociologist had been tracking the patent index in a developing country for the past 30 years. Over that time, the number of patents applied for has been steadily increasing. Based on David McClelland’s work, it is likely that this country’s need for achievement will
    A. also have steadily increased over the past 30 years.
    B. have shown a steady decline over the past 30 years.
    C. not have changed over the past 30 years.
    D. have fluctuated randomly over the past 30 years.

 

  1. Which of the following statement regarding the need for achievement is the MOST accurate?
    A. The need for achievement is highly variable in a given person throughout his/her lifetime.
    B. Achievement motive is generally determined by situational factors.
    C. The need for achievement is a fairly stable aspect of one’s personality.
    D. There is a strong genetic component in the need for achievement.

 

  1. Which of the following characteristics is LEAST likely to be found in persons high in achievement motivation?
    A. tendency to select the hardest tasks
    B. tendency to delay gratification
    C. future-oriented
    D. persistent

 

  1. Given a high level of achievement motivation, which type task should maximize one’s sense of accomplishment?
    A. a very difficult task
    B. an intermediate difficulty task
    C. a very easy task
    D. task difficulty doesn’t matter

 

  1. Stefan is an individual who has a high need for achievement. His boss has three jobs that need to be completed; one job is easy, one job is moderately difficult, and one job is extremely difficult. If Stefan is allowed to choose which of the three jobs he will undertake for his boss, you would expect that Stefan will
    A. maximize the task difficulty by selecting the hardest job.
    B. choose the easy job, to maximize his chance for success.
    C. choose the moderately difficult job.
    D. ask his boss to make the choice, to avoid a potentially negative evaluation.

 

  1. A person’s achievement behavior is influenced by all of the following EXCEPT
    A. the probability of success.
    B. the incentive value of success.
    C. the person’s level of achievement motivation.
    D. the person’s level of affiliation motivation.

 

  1. The two primary situational factors that influence achievement behavior are
    A. the probability of success and incentive value of success
    B. the probability of success and probability of failure
    C. the incentive value of success and the individual’s achievement motivation
    D. the probability of success and the individual’s achievement motivation

 

  1. People high in the need for achievement prefer moderately challenging tasks compared to either very easy or very difficult tasks because
    A. succeeding on moderate tasks is possible and satisfying.
    B. succeeding on moderate tasks is most satisfying.
    C. succeeding on very easy tasks provides little satisfaction.
    D. succeeding on very difficult tasks is unlikely.

 

  1. People high in the need for achievement prefer ____ tasks since these tasks provide an appropriate combination of probability of success and incentive value for success.
    A. extremely difficult
    B. moderately difficult
    C. moderately easy
    D. extremely easy

 

  1. According to Atkinson’s expectancy-value model, the pursuit of achievement increases as the probability of success ____, and the incentive value of success ____.
    A. increases; decreases
    B. increases; increases
    C. decreases; increases
    D. decreases; decreases

 

  1. The determinant of achievement that increases when a student is enrolled in a university course that is required for graduation is
    A. the incentive value of success.
    B. the probability of success.
    C. the need to avoid failure.
    D. the need for achievement.

 

  1. Boris has a high need for achievement, and he is currently enrolled in a philosophy course that is required for his major. The professor who teaches the course gives extremely difficult exams, and has never been known to give a student a grade higher than a B. Under these conditions, it is likely that Boris
    A. will not exert his maximum effort in the course because the course has a low incentive value for him.
    B. will exert the maximum effort he can because he has a high need for achievement.
    C. will not exert his maximum effort in the course because he has a low expectation of success.
    D. will drop the course and switch to a different major.

 

  1. Cyndi is an individual who has a high need for achievement. She is trying to decide which one of four possible courses she should take as her final elective course for her degree. One of the courses is supposed to be an easy course, with an “A” practically guaranteed for very little effort; one course is supposed to be moderately difficult, but with effort an “A” is possible; one course is supposed to be a “killer” course with little chance of earning a grade higher than a “B”; the fourth course is a seminar-style course with no grades assigned. You should expect that Cyndi will choose
    A. the course that has no assigned grades.
    B. the moderately difficult course that requires effort for a high grade.
    C. the easy course which practically guarantees a high grade.
    D. the “killer” course to maximize her level of task difficulty.

 

  1. The three components that any complete treatment of emotion should include are
    A. cognitive, behavioral, physiological.
    B. cognitive, situational, physiological.
    C. social, situational, cognitive.
    D. behavioral, physiological, social.

 

  1. Which of the following is NOT one of the three components of emotion?
    A. behavioral
    B. cognitive
    C. perceptual
    D. physiological

 

  1. The subjective conscious experience of an emotion describes the
    A. behavioral component.
    B. cognitive component.
    C. perceptual component.
    D. physiological component.

 

  1. In studying the cognitive components of emotions, psychologists generally rely on which of the following?
    A. heart rate
    B. galvanic skin response
    C. subjects’ verbal reports
    D. scores on the Thematic Apperception Test

 

  1. Paola is about to give a speech in front of a roomful of strangers. As he steps up to the podium he feels anxious and nervous. This reaction is part of the
    A. physiological component in Paola’s emotional experience.
    B. behavioral component in Paola’s emotional experience.
    C. objective component in Paola’s emotional experience.
    D. cognitive component in Paola’s emotional experience.

 

  1. Laura is about to take her certification exam that will qualify her as a licensed therapist. As she enters the testing room she feels anxious and nervous. This reaction is part of the
    A. physiological component in Laura’s emotional experience.
    B. behavioral component in Laura’s emotional experience.
    C. objective component in Laura’s emotional experience.
    D. cognitive component in Laura’s emotional experience.

 

  1. Janie is listening to several of her friends describe the miserable conditions they saw when they were in Bosnia, as part of the peace-keeping force. As she listens to the stories of starvation and ruin, Janie feels overwhelmed by sadness. This reaction is part of the
    A. physiological component in Janie’s emotional experience.
    B. behavioral component in Janie’s emotional experience.
    C. cognitive component in Janie’s emotional experience.
    D. objective component in Janie’s emotional experience.

 

  1. The observation that one individual may experience an airplane flight as an anxiety-arousing situation while another individual may experience an airplane flight as a routine event reflects that emotion involves
    A. a subjective conscious experience or cognitive component.
    B. an objective conscious experience or cognitive component.
    C. bodily arousal or a physiological component.
    D. an overt response or a behavioral component.

 

  1. As Christine is watching the climax of a horror movie, all at once she is frightened, nervous, and excited. Her behavior reflects the ____ component of emotion.
    A. behavioral
    B. cognitive
    C. perceptual
    D. physiological

 

  1. Autonomic arousal MOST directly relates to the ____ component of emotion.
    A. physiological
    B. perceptual
    C. behavioral
    D. cognitive

 

  1. The physiological component of emotion is directly associated with the functioning of the
    A. autonomic nervous system.
    B. somatic nervous system.
    C. central nervous system.
    D. hindbrain.

 

  1. As Christine is watching the climax of a horror movie, she gets “goose bumps,” her heart starts pounding, and her breathing becomes more rapid. Her behavior reflects the ____ component of emotion.
    A. behavioral
    B. cognitive
    C. perceptual
    D. physiological

 

  1. Which of the following is NOT associated with autonomic arousal?
    A. increased heart rate
    B. sweaty palms or increased perspiration
    C. increased digestion
    D. dilation of pupils

 

  1. A polygraph typically monitors all of the following EXCEPT
    A. respiration rate.
    B. dilation of the pupils.
    C. galvanic skin response (GSR).
    D. blood pressure.

 

  1. The ____ component of an emotion refers to the bodily arousal of that emotion.
    A. cognitive
    B. physiological
    C. affective
    D. behavioral

 

  1. The galvanic skin response is a measure of
    A. blood flow through the skin.
    B. muscle tension of the skin.
    C. electrical conductivity of the skin.
    D. two-point difference threshold of the skin.

 

  1. Malcolm is reading a mystery novel, and as the action builds he finds he is breathing more quickly than usual, and he feels like his stomach is tied in knots. These reactions are part of the
    A. objective component in Malcolm’s emotional experience.
    B. physiological component in Malcolm’s emotional experience.
    C. cognitive component in Malcolm’s emotional experience.
    D. behavioral component in Malcolm’s emotional experience.

 

  1. Lee is about to take his drivers exam. As he enters the testing room he notices that is heart is racing and his palms are sweating. This reaction is part of the
    A. physiological component in Lee’s emotional experience.
    B. behavioral component in Lee’s emotional experience.
    C. objective component in Lee’s emotional experience.
    D. cognitive component in Lee’s emotional experience.

 

  1. As Danica saw the headlights coming directly at her through the fog on the highway, her blood pressure rose quickly, and she felt her heart start to race. These reactions are part of
    A. the behavioral component in Danica’s emotional experience.
    B. the objective component in Danica’s emotional experience.
    C. the cognitive component in Danica’s emotional experience.
    D. the physiological component in Danica’s emotional experience.

 

  1. The GSR is usually considered to be
    A. a measure of conscious emotion
    B. an index of honesty
    C. a measure of the cognitive component of emotion
    D. a general measure of autonomic arousal

 

  1. A device that measures heart rate, respiration rate, and blood pressure (i.e., autonomic arousal) is
    A. a polygraph
    B. a galvanic response meter
    C. an electromyocardiograph
    D. an electroencephalograph

 

  1. Most of the discernible physiological arousal associated with emotion occurs through the actions of the
    A. medulla.
    B. forebrain.
    C. central nervous system.
    D. autonomic nervous system.

 

  1. Lee is about to take his drivers exam. As he enters the testing room he notices that he is feeling anxious. The physiological experience of his emotion reaction is MOST likely the result of the action of Lee’s
    A. medulla
    B. forebrain
    C. central nervous system
    D. autonomic nervous system

 

  1. Which of the following statements about polygraphs is MOST accurate?
    A. Polygraphs can detect lying with almost 100 percent accuracy.
    B. Polygraphs can detect emotionality that accompanies lying some of the time, but with a high error rate.
    C. Polygraphs cannot detect emotionality at all.
    D. Polygraphs can detect positive emotional states with a high degree of accuracy and negative emotional states with a low degree of accuracy.

 

  1. Victoria is extremely upset because she has been falsely accused of stealing money from her employer. Her lawyer has suggested that Victoria take a polygraph test to prove her innocence. She asks you whether she should agree to the test. Based on the research into the accuracy of polygraphs, you should tell Victoria that polygraphs
    A. are extremely accurate, and if Victoria is truly innocent she will pass with no problem.
    B. only measure overall arousal levels and are not reliable indicators of whether or not people are lying.
    C. sometimes wrongly indicate that innocent people are guilty, but are 100% accurate in detecting guilt.
    D. sometimes wrongly indicate that guilty people are innocent, but are 100% accurate in detecting innocence.

 

  1. Recent evidence suggests that the ____ plays a particularly central role in the modulation of emotion.
    A. amygdala
    B. thalamus
    C. temporal lobe
    D. pineal gland

 

  1. Laura is about to take her certification exam that will qualify her as a licensed therapist. As she enters the testing room she feels anxious and nervous. This reaction is MOST likely the result of activity in what part of Laura’s brain?
    A. amygdala
    B. thalamus
    C. temporal lobe
    D. pineal gland

 

  1. At times, the results of polygraph testing
    A. correctly indicate that a person is lying.
    B. incorrectly indicate that a truthful person is lying.
    C. incorrectly indicate that a dishonest person is truthful.
    D. all of the above are correct.

 

  1. Research on the role of the amygdala in the modulation of emotion has focused mainly on which of the following emotions?
    A. fear
    B. sadness
    C. surprise
    D. happiness

 

  1. Which of the following statements most accurately reflects the results of recent research on the amygdala?
    A. it processes information related only to fear
    B. it may play a role in positive emotions as well as fear
    C. it processes a wide range of negative emotions, but not positive ones
    D. it may play a role in a wide range of positive emotions, but not negative ones

 

  1. What part of the brain is known for its role in voluntary control over emotional reactions?
    A. amygdala
    B. thalamus
    C. temporal lobe
    D. prefrontal cortex

 

  1. The ____ has been implicated in the process of pain related emotional distress.
    A. amygdala
    B. cingulated cortex
    C. temporal lobe
    D. prefrontal cortex

 

  1. The thalamus simultaneously transmits information capable of eliciting emotion to both the
    A. hypothalamus and cerebral cortex.
    B. hypothalamus and cerebellum.
    C. amygdala and cerebral cortex.
    D. amygdala and cerebellum.

 

  1. The nervous system pathway which transmits information from the thalamus to the ____ is a rapid-response pathway that quickly results in physiological responses associated with emotion.
    A. medulla
    B. amygdala
    C. cerebral cortex
    D. cerebellum

 

  1. All of the following are associated with the physiological component of emotion EXCEPT the
    A. endocrine system
    B. cerebral cortex
    C. autonomic nervous system
    D. amygdala

 

  1. Body language is directly related to the ____ component of emotion.
    A. perceptual
    B. physiological
    C. cognitive
    D. behavioral

 

  1. As Christine is watching the climax of a horror movie, she grasps the arms of her chair, gasps, and closes her eyes. Her behavior reflects the ____ component of emotions.
    A. physiological
    B. cognitive
    C. perceptual
    D. behavioral

 

 

 

Chapter 10 A–Motivation and Emotion Key

  1. Homeostasis is a state of
    A.physiological stability.
    B. physiological instability.
    C. psychological stability.
    D. psychological instability.

 

  1. Needs, wants, interests and desires that propel people in certain directions are known as
    A.drives.
    B. motives.
    C. incentives.
    D. habits.

 

  1. An internal state of tension that precedes behavior designed to reduce that tension is referred to as a
    A.fugue.
    B. drive.
    C. need.
    D. biostate.

 

  1. A drive is an internal state of
    A.equilibrium that is motivating.
    B. equilibrium that is nonmotivating.
    C. tension that is motivating.
    D. tension that is nonmotivating.

 

  1. Tension reduction is the goal according to which motivational theory?
    A.drive theory
    B. evolutionary theory
    C. instinct theory
    D. incentive theory

 

  1. According to drive theorists, the foremost motivation for all organisms is to
    A.achieve self-actualization.
    B. maintain homeostasis.
    C. ensure their own survival and the survival of their species.
    D. experience as much pleasant stimulation as possible.

 

  1. Food-deprived rats will learn a new response if given nonnutritive, saccharine-sweetened water as a reward. Thus, the sweet-tasting water is motivating even though no actual hunger reduction takes place. This fact raises questions about
    A.instinct theories of motivation.
    B. sociobiological theories of motivation.
    C. incentive theories of motivation.
    D. drive theories of motivation.

 

  1. Which of the following behaviors is consistent with a drive theory of motivation?
    A.eating an apple when hungry
    B. eating dessert after a large meal
    C. looking up information in the encyclopedia
    D. studying hard to earn an “A” on the test

 

  1. Rita has just finished a large meal at her favorite restaurant. Although she is quite full, when the waiter brings the dessert tray, she orders a piece of chocolate cheesecake. In this instance, Rita’s behavior is LEAST consistent with
    A.incentive theories of motivation.
    B. the expectancy-value theory of motivation.
    C. the self-awareness theory of motivation.
    D. drive theories of motivation.

 

  1. Motives are BEST described as ____ that propel people in certain directions.
    A.biological factors
    B. social factors
    C. drives and incentives
    D. needs, wants, interests, and desires

 

  1. When you are engaging in goal-directed behavior, you may be BEST described as experiencing
    A.drive reduction.
    B. an incentive.
    C. emotion.
    D. motivation.

 

  1. An internal state of tension that motivates an organism to engage in activities that should reduce this tension defines
    A.motive.
    B. incentive.
    C. drive.
    D. emotion.

 

  1. According to drive theory of motivation, if you drink water when you are thirsty, drinking results in
    A.drive production and serves as an incentive.
    B. drive reduction and restores physiological equilibrium.
    C. need production and serves as an incentive.
    D. need reduction and restores physiological equilibrium.

 

  1. An external goal that has the capacity to motivate behavior is
    A.a motive.
    B. a drive.
    C. an incentive.
    D. a need.

 

  1. A bonus of $100.00 for completing a work assignment before a deadline is an example of
    A.an incentive.
    B. a reward.
    C. drive reduction.
    D. a motive.

 

  1. While ____ theories of motivation emphasize internal factors, ____ theories emphasize external factors.
    A.drive; incentive
    B. incentive; drive
    C. biological; drive
    D. incentive; environmental

 

  1. Evolutionary theories of motivation suggest that motives result in behaviors that
    A.restore homeostasis
    B. maximize reproductive success
    C. reduce biological needs
    D. reduce incentives

 

  1. Patrick ate a large breakfast. When he arrived for his 8:00 a.m. class the student next to him offered Patrick a large raisin muffin. Even though Patrick was still quite full from breakfast, he ate the muffin that he was offered. In this instance, Patrick’s behavior can best be explained using
    A.drive theories of motivation.
    B. instinctive theories of motivation.
    C. incentive theories of motivation.
    D. the self-awareness theory of motivation.

 

  1. An external goal that has the capacity to motivate behavior is referred to as
    A.an incentive.
    B. a drive.
    C. a homeostatic mechanism.
    D. an expectancy.

 

  1. Drive theories of motivation are classified as ____ theories, while incentive theories of motivation are classified as ____ theories.
    A.external; internal
    B. sociobiological; sociological
    C. constrained; unconstrained
    D. push; pull

 

  1. Most motivational theorists divide motives into two categories consisting of
    A.want and desire motives.
    B. biological and social motives.
    C. necessary and unnecessary motives.
    D. survival and reproductive motives.

 

  1. According to K. B. Madsen, most motivation theories identify ____ biological needs.
    A.less than 5
    B. 10-15
    C. 25-30
    D. more than 40

 

  1. What do the following have in common: achievement, autonomy, play, and dominance?
    A.They are all drives.
    B. They are all biological needs.
    C. They are all social needs.
    D. They are all social-based biological motives.

 

  1. According to motivation theorists, we would expect people generally to be
    A.more similar in biological than in social needs.
    B. more similar in social than in biological needs.
    C. highly varied in both social and biological needs.
    D. quite similar in both biological and social needs.

 

  1. Imogene grew up in a small town in northern England, Dexter grew up in a large city in West Germany. You should expect that Imogene and Dexter have
    A.the same social needs, but different biological needs.
    B. the same biological needs, but different social needs.
    C. different biological and social needs.
    D. the same biological and social needs.

 

  1. Which of the following is NOT considered a social need in humans?
    A.affiliation
    B. aggression
    C. nurturance
    D. achievement

 

  1. Which category of motives is often acquired through learning and varies depending on an individuals’ experience?
    A.reproductive
    B. survival
    C. biological
    D. social

 

  1. Animals with a surgically destroyed lateral hypothalamus show
    A.excessive thirst and consumption of water
    B. little or no interest in eating and weight loss
    C. excessive overeating and weight gain
    D. little or no interest in sex

 

  1. If, after brain damage suffered in a car accident, a person gained 50 pounds in two months you would MOST likely suspect damage to the
    A.ventromedial hypothalamus.
    B. dorsal hypothalamus.
    C. lateral hypothalamus.
    D. glucostats.

 

  1. Cannon and Washburn (1912) proposed that hunger is caused by
    A.lack of food.
    B. stomach contractions.
    C. low blood sugar.
    D. changes in leptin levels.

 

  1. Dr. Linzle has implanted an electrode in the hypothalamus of a rat. When the rat’s brain is electrically stimulated, the rat starts to eat again, even if it has just finished a large meal. The electrode is most likely activating the
    A.ventromedial hypothalamus.
    B. parvocellular hypothalamus.
    C. magnocellular hypothalamus.
    D. lateral hypothalamus.

 

  1. A laboratory rat has had part of its hypothalamus destroyed by lesioning. The rat seems to have lost all interest in food and is starving itself, even though there is food available. In this case, it would appear that portions of the
    A.lateral hypothalamus have been destroyed.
    B. ventromedial hypothalamus have been destroyed.
    C. parvocellular hypothalamus have been destroyed.
    D. magnocellular hypothalamus have been destroyed.

 

  1. Animals that have lesions in the ventromedial nucleus of the hypothalamus
    A.go for days without sleep.
    B. lose all interest in sex.
    C. overeat and become obese.
    D. ignore food and often starve.

 

  1. Which area of the hypothalamus, containing one group of neurons that are sensitive to incoming hunger signals, and another area that responds to satiety signals, has been singled out as especially important in the regulation of hunger?
    A.ventromedial area
    B. lateral area
    C. arcuate nucleus
    D. paraventricular nucleus

 

  1. Dr. McCardle has implanted an electrode in the hypothalamus of a rat. When the rat’s brain is electrically stimulated, the rat stops eating. The electrode is MOST likely activating the
    A.magnocellular hypothalamus.
    B. ventromedial hypothalamus.
    C. lateral hypothalamus.
    D. parvocellular hypothalamus.

 

  1. In general, contemporary theories regarding brain regulation of hunger tend to focus on which of the following?
    A.neural circuits
    B. anatomical centers
    C. overall size of brain
    D. amount of electrical activity in the hindbrain

 

  1. Which of the following does NOT play a role in the neural circuits involved in hunger?
    A.GABA
    B. serotonin
    C. endogenous opiates
    D. endogenous cannabinoids

 

  1. Ghrelin plays a particularly crucial role in
    A.stimulating hunger.
    B. preventing hunger.
    C. balancing glucose levels.
    D. balancing insulin levels.

 

  1. Levels of ghrelin are increasing in Scott’s neural system. You would predict that Scott will
    A.become hungry.
    B. stop eating.
    C. calm down.
    D. become nervous.

 

  1. Which of the following statements best reflects the current view regarding the role of ghrelin in hunger regulation?
    A.it is associated with both endocrine and nervous systems, and increased food intake
    B. ghrelin levels regulate feelings of satiety in the stomach
    C. decreased ghrelin levels are involved in a lower propensity to feel hungry
    D. high amounts in the brain have been shown to cause refusal to eat in laboratory rats

 

  1. Manipulations that decrease blood glucose level cause ____; manipulations that increase blood glucose level cause ____.
    A.an increase in general arousal; a decrease in general arousal
    B. a decrease in general arousal; an increase in general arousal
    C. a decrease in hunger; an increase in hunger
    D. an increase in hunger; a decrease in hunger

 

  1. When Giselle was in the hospital recently, she received glucose continuously through an intravenous line. As Giselle’s blood glucose levels started to rise, she would have begun to
    A.experience decreased autonomic arousal.
    B. lose interest in food.
    C. feel hungry.
    D. become agitated.

 

  1. Which theory proposes that fluctuations in sugar levels in the blood are monitored and influence hunger?
    A.drive reduction
    B. glucostatic theory
    C. incentive theory
    D. set-point theory

 

  1. Neurons that are sensitive to sugar levels in the blood are referred to as
    A.glucostats.
    B. hypothalamic nuclei.
    C. rheostats.
    D. thalami.

 

  1. According to glucostatic theory, the level of ____ is a primary control mechanism for the regulation of hunger.
    A.cholecystokinin in the bloodstream
    B. glucose in the blood
    C. lipids in the liver
    D. metabolites in the pancreas

 

  1. According to glucostatic theory, the level of ____ is a primary control mechanism for the regulation of hunger.
    A.cholecystokinin in the bloodstream
    B. glucose in the blood
    C. lipids in the liver
    D. metabolites in the pancreas

 

  1. Of the brain structures listed below, which one do scientists currently believe plays a larger role than the other structures in the modulation of hunger?
    A.ventromedial hypothalamus
    B. lateral hypothalamus
    C. dorsal hypothalamus
    D. paraventricular hypothalamus

 

  1. Contemporary theories of hunger focus more on ____ of the hypothalamus rather than on ____ of the hypothalamus.
    A.stimulation; destruction
    B. destruction; stimulation
    C. neural circuits; anatomical centers
    D. anatomical centers; neural circuits

 

  1. William, a subject in a psychology experiment, just received an injection that raised his blood glucose level. William is MOST likely to report
    A.he feels angry.
    B. he feels happy.
    C. he feels hungry.
    D. he does not feel hungry.

 

  1. After consuming food, neural signals from the stomach transmit information to the brain concerning
    A.fullness (or the stretching of the stomach wall).
    B. satiety (or how rich in nutrients the contents of the stomach are).
    C. neither fullness or satiety.
    D. both fullness and satiety.

 

  1. The hormone produced by fat cells that tends to diminish feelings of hunger when at high levels is
    A.insulin.
    B. leptin.
    C. adrenalin.
    D. glucose.

 

  1. According to the theory of leptin resistance, overweight people develop
    A.reduced responsiveness to the hunger-suppressing effect of leptin
    B. increased responsiveness to the hunger-causing effect of leptin
    C. reduced levels of glucose due to poor leptin metabolism
    D. increased levels of glucose due to poor leptin metabolism

 

  1. Which of the following is NOT associated with a decrease in hunger or eating behavior?
    A.damage to the lateral hypothalamus
    B. a decrease in blood glucose level
    C. nervous system information indicating stretching of the stomach walls
    D. high levels of leptin in the blood

 

  1. Which of the following statements regarding the role of insulin in hunger is least accurate?
    A.Insulin is a hormone secreted by the pancreas.
    B. Insulin must be present for cells to utilize glucose.
    C. Increased insulin secretion causes increased hunger.
    D. Diabetics have too much insulin.

 

  1. Based on the interaction between glucose levels and insulin levels in the body, you should expect that laboratory rats with artificially reduced levels of insulin will
    A.tend to overeat and gain weight.
    B. stop eating, but still gain weight.
    C. stop eating and lose weight.
    D. show an increase in activity in the ventromedial hypothalamus.

 

  1. Which of the following statements BEST reflects the current view regarding the role of leptin in hunger regulation?
    A.the presence of leptin in the bloodstream tends to increase feelings of hunger.
    B. leptin levels apparently regulate the hunger centers located in the stomach.
    C. when leptin levels are high, the propensity to feel hungry diminishes.
    D. an excessive amount of leptin in the brain has been associated with obesity in rats.

 

  1. Which of the following would NOT be considered an environmental factor in the regulation of hunger?
    A.stress
    B. hormonal fluctuations
    C. food-related cues
    D. learned preferences and habits

 

  1. Janis knows that you have been studying eating behavior in your psychology class and asks you to explain why, in spite of her best interests she always overeats on Thanksgiving day when she is at her parents house. Which of the following would be the LEAST likely claim you would tell her?
    A.She consumes more food because of the quantity of food that is presented; the more food served, the more she is likely to eat.
    B. She is likely to consume more food because of the variety of food that is presented; the more variety of foods served, the more she is likely to eat.
    C. She consumes more food because she is in the presence of other people and tends to linger at the table longer.
    D. She consumes more food because in the cooler months insulin levels tend to increase and when insulin levels increase people tend to eat.

 

  1. Sensory-specific satiety refers to
    A.the phenomenon that when there are few foods available the appeal of them can decline quickly.
    B. the phenomenon that when there are many foods available the appeal of them can decline quickly.
    C. the phenomenon that when there are few foods available the appeal of them can quickly increase.
    D. the phenomenon that when there are many foods available people will quickly tire of them and stop eating.

 

  1. When Harvey was a child the only time he ate turnips was when he was at his grandmother’s house for Christmas dinner. Now, as an adult, Harvey loves the taste of turnips because he associates them with Christmas at his grandmother’s house. In this example, Harvey’s preference for the taste of turnips could best be explained using principles of
    A.observational learning.
    B. classical conditioning.
    C. homeostatic conditioning.
    D. genetic predispositions.

 

  1. Mr. Knez is trying to get his 7-year-old daughter to eat some vegetable-fried rice for the first time. Mr. Knez should be most successful in getting his daughter to sample the new dish if he
    A.tells his daughter she won’t get any desert until she tries some of the fried rice.
    B. eats some of the fried rice first, and shows a favorable reaction while he eats it.
    C. carefully describes all the ingredients that are in the fried rice.
    D. mixes it in with some other food that she enjoys eating.

 

  1. Environmental factors associated with the regulation of hunger and eating behavior include all of the following EXCEPT
    A.how much time has passed since a person’s last meal.
    B. the tastiness of available food.
    C. a “rumbling” stomach.
    D. classical conditioning and observational learning.

 

  1. Research suggests that people experiencing high levels of stress are MOST likely to increase their consumption of
    A.all foods.
    B. tasty foods.
    C. highly nutritional foods.
    D. low-calorie foods.

 

  1. Which of the following statements regarding the influence of stress on eating behavior is LEAST accurate?
    A.Stress leads to increased eating in a substantial portion of people.
    B. Stress-induced eating appears to be more common among men than among women.
    C. Stress-induced eating appears to be more common among chronic dieters.
    D. It appears to be stress-induced arousal rather than stress itself that stimulates eating.

 

  1. Many experts prefer to access obesity in terms of
    A.Body Mass Index.
    B. kilograms.
    C. kilograms divided by height.
    D. height divided by weight.

 

  1. Recent surveys indicate that the incidence of obesity in the United States has
    A.increased.
    B. decreased.
    C. remained constant.
    D. virtually disappeared.

 

  1. Which of the following is a measure of weight that controls for variations in height and is increasingly used in research on obesity?
    A.set point
    B. reaction range
    C. body mass index
    D. obesity quotient

 

  1. If a body mass index of over 25 is used as the cut off for obesity, then almost ____ of adults the United States are struggling with weight problems.
    A.15 percent
    B. 33 percent
    C. 66 percent
    D. 75 percent

 

  1. What BMI level is typically regarded as an indication of obesity?
    A.25
    B. 29
    C. 30
    D. 35

 

  1. Mortality rates among people who are moderately overweight (BMI 25-29.9) are:
    A.not elevated in today’s population
    B. lower than those of slightly overweight people
    C. higher than those of obese individuals
    D. increasing rapidly

 

  1. Obesity is a significant health problem that places individuals at risk for all of the following EXCEPT
    A.cardiovascular diseases.
    B. hypertension.
    C. stroke.
    D. fibromylagia.

 

  1. What theoretical perspective argues that the increase in obesity in humans is a result of the fact that early humans lived in environments in which there was fierce competition for limited, unreliable food resources and that developed a tendency to consume food when it was present?
    A.cognitive
    B. evolutionary
    C. body-set point
    D. settling-point

 

  1. Dr. Green suggests that when food is plentiful, people have a tendency to overeat, with many people in modern industrialized societies eating excessive amounts of food. Dr. Green’s view is most consistent with the
    A.biological approach.
    B. drive-reduction approach.
    C. evolutionary approach.
    D. environmental cues approach.

 

  1. Which pair of individuals would be expected to be MOST similar in body mass index?
    A.a husband and wife
    B. an adopted child and the adoptive parent
    C. two fraternal twins reared together
    D. two identical twins reared apart

 

  1. Kathy has lost 25 pounds recently through dieting. According to ____ she will have difficulty keeping the weight off because her metabolism will have decreased in order to maintain the fat stores in her body.
    A.set-point theory
    B. settling-point theory
    C. evolutionary theory
    D. dietary restraint theory

 

  1. In studies on adult foster children designed to examine the role of genetic disposition in obesity, researchers have found that the foster children
    A.were more like their biological parents in weight
    B. were more like their foster parents in weight
    C. did not resemble either set of parents in weight
    D. were more like their half-siblings than either set of parents

 

  1. The fact that the correlation in weight between identical twins reared apart is higher than that between fraternal twins reared together suggests that weight is
    A.influenced more by genetics than by environmental factors.
    B. influenced more by environmental factors than by genetics.
    C. affected equally by genetics and environmental factors.
    D. not affected by either genetics or environmental factor.

 

  1. The basic idea behind the set-point theory of body weight is that
    A.the body monitors fat stores and tries to keep them stable.
    B. the body monitors carbohydrate stores and tries to keep them stable.
    C. the body monitors protein levels and tries to keep them stable.
    D. glucostats are critical in weight control.

 

  1. The set point for body weight refers to the
    A.lowest possible weight at which the person can survive
    B. highest weight the person can attain by unrestricted eating
    C. person’s current weight
    D. person’s natural point of stability in body weight

 

  1. According to set-point theory, the body monitors the
    A.level of fat stores in the body to keep it fairly constant.
    B. level of glucose in the bloodstream.
    C. basal metabolic rate to keep it constant.
    D. activity of the hypothalamus.

 

  1. Set point theory implies that people who have
    A.a low set point will have the hardest time losing weight.
    B. a high set point will often regain any weight they lose.
    C. a low set point will often regain any weight they lose.
    D. a high set point will often lose any weight they gain.

 

  1. Set-point theorists propose that people’s set point depends on
    A.their bone structure.
    B. their activity level.
    C. the number of fat cells they possess.
    D. their current body weight.

 

  1. Settling-point theory proposes that weight tends to drift around
    A.a low set point.
    B. the level at which the factors of food consumption and energy expenditure are at equilibrium.
    C. a high set point.
    D. the level at which the factors of food storage and energy expenditure are at equilibrium.

 

  1. Which weight control theory proposes a more optimistic view for those hoping to lose weight?
    A.set point theory
    B. evolutionary theory
    C. settling point theory
    D. neither theory is more optimistic then any other others.

 

  1. The theory that proposes that weight tends to drift around the level at which the constellation of factors that determine food consumption and energy expenditure achieve an equilibrium is
    A.dietary restraint theory.
    B. settling-point theory.
    C. set-point theory.
    D. drive-reduction theory.

 

  1. Masters and Johnson conducted groundbreaking research concerning
    A.sexual orientation.
    B. sexual preferences.
    C. the psychology of the human sexual response.
    D. the physiology of the human sexual response.

 

  1. Which of the following is NOT one of the four phases of the human sexual response?
    A.excitement
    B. refractory
    C. orgasm
    D. plateau

 

  1. Which of the following represents the correct sequence of the phases of the human sexual response?
    A.plateau, excitement, orgasm, resolution
    B. excitement, plateau, orgasm, resolution
    C. plateau, excitement, resolution, orgasm
    D. excitement, plateau, resolution, orgasm

 

  1. Heart rate, respiration rate, and blood pressure increase sharply during which two phases of the human sexual response?
    A.excitement and orgasm
    B. orgasm and resolution
    C. plateau and orgasm
    D. excitement and plateau

 

  1. Justus is reading an erotic story in a men’s magazine when he finds his respiration rate and heart rate increasing. He is also experiencing penile erection. Based on the phases described by Masters and Johnson, Justus is in the
    A.plateau phase.
    B. orgasmic phase.
    C. resolution phase.
    D. excitement phase.

 

  1. Irene is listening to a romance novel while she is on her daily walk. Although she is not walking especially fast, she finds that as she listens to one of the love scenes in the novel her respiration rate and heart rate increase. She is also experiencing vaginal moistness. Based on the phases described by Masters and Johnson, Irene is in the
    A.plateau phase.
    B. orgasmic phase.
    C. resolution phase.
    D. excitement phase.

 

  1. Which of the following statements about the sexual cycle studied by Masters and Johnson is most accurate?
    A.Orgasm is quite different in males and females.
    B. During the refractory period, men cannot experience another orgasm.
    C. The excitement phase occurs much more rapidly in women than in men.
    D. The plateau phase involves a decrease in bodily functions.

 

  1. Penile erection in males and the swelling of the clitoris in females is due to
    A.muscular contractions.
    B. engorgement of blood vessels.
    C. increased blood pressure.
    D. decrease in respiration.

 

  1. Sean and his wife have been kissing and caressing for about 15 minutes. His level of arousal is still increasing, and he has begun to secrete some seminal fluid from the tip of his penis. Based on the phases described by Masters and Johnson, Sean is in the
    A.plateau phase.
    B. excitement phase.
    C. orgasmic phase.
    D. resolution phase.

 

  1. Alayna and her husband have been kissing and caressing for about 15 minutes. Her level of arousal is still increasing, and she can feel some tightening in her vagina. Based on the phases described by Masters and Johnson, Alayna is in the
    A.resolution phase.
    B. plateau phase.
    C. excitement phase.
    D. orgasmic phase.

 

  1. During which phase of the human sexual response cycle does a series of muscular contractions pulsate through the pelvic area?
    A.excitatory phase
    B. resolution phase
    C. orgasm phase
    D. phallic phase

 

  1. Talia and her husband are having sex when Talia suddenly experiences a series of muscular contractions throughout her pelvis. Based on research conducted by Masters and Johnson,
    A.Talia’s muscular contractions are likely to produce an orgasm in her husband.
    B. it will be at least 20 minutes before Talia can become sexually aroused again.
    C. Talia may experience another orgasm without going through a refractory period.
    D. Talia will now pass into the plateau stage of the sexual response cycle.

 

  1. Which of the following statements regarding the human sexual response is LEAST accurate?
    A.It is normal for sexual arousal to vary during lengthy foreplay.
    B. The subjective experience of orgasm is very similar for males and females.
    C. Women are far more likely than men to be multiorgasmic.
    D. Men are more likely than women to engage in intercourse without experiencing an orgasm.

 

  1. Peter and his wife are having sex when Peter’s blood pressure increases sharply, and he experiences a series of muscular contractions throughout his pelvis. Based on research conducted by Masters and Johnson,
    A.Peter is likely to experience several more orgasms before he enters a refractory period.
    B. Peter’s muscular contractions are likely to produce an orgasm in his wife.
    C. Peter will be relatively unresponsive to sexual stimulation for a period of time following his orgasm.
    D. Peter will now pass into the plateau stage of the sexual response cycle.

 

  1. Some theorists argue that women are socialized to be sexually submissive and some data suggests this submissiveness
    A.increases their sexual arousal.
    B. decreases their sexual arousal.
    C. increases sexual arousal in men.
    D. decreases sexual arousal in men.

 

  1. Assume a woman is sexually submissive. Based on research, you would predict this will
    A.enhance her sexual arousal.
    B. decrease her sexual arousal.
    C. enhance the sexual arousal of her male partner.
    D. decrease the sexual arousal of her male partner.

 

  1. Assume a woman is deeply in love with her male partner. Based on research, you would predict this will
    A.enhance her chances of achieving orgasm.
    B. decrease her chances of achieving orgasm.
    C. enhance her male partner’s chances of achieving orgasm.
    D. decrease her male partner’s chances of achieving orgasm.

 

  1. Orgasm consistency seems to be influenced by relationship quality
    A.more in women than men.
    B. more in men than women.
    C. in neither sex.
    D. in both sexes.

 

  1. Which of the following generalizations was NOT supported by Masters and Johnson’s human sexuality research?
    A.Women are more apt than men to have intercourse without orgasm.
    B. The subjective experience of orgasm is very similar for men and women.
    C. Men are more apt to be multiorgasmic than women are.
    D. Sexual difficulties are most typically caused by psychological factors.

 

  1. Both penile erection in men and vaginal lubrication in females occur as a result of
    A.orgasm.
    B. decreased blood pressure.
    C. vasocongestion.
    D. muscular tension.

 

  1. Pat’s sexual arousal just reached its peak intensity and was discharged in a series of muscular contractions that pulsated through the pelvic area. Pat just experienced the ____ phase of the human sexual response.
    A.peak
    B. orgasm
    C. plateau
    D. resolution

 

  1. During which phase of the human sexual response are male-female gender differences MOST pronounced?
    A.excitement phase
    B. plateau phase
    C. orgasm phase
    D. resolution phase

 

  1. Which of the following statements concerning the orgasm phase of the human sexual response is NOT correct?
    A.the subjective experience of orgasm is very similar for men and women
    B. women are more likely than men to engage in intercourse without experiencing an orgasm
    C. women are less likely than men to be multiorgasmic
    D. in men, ejaculation of semen occurs during orgasm

 

  1. The reduction in sexual tension during the resolution phase of the human sexual response is generally relatively slow or more gradual
    A.for males.
    B. for females.
    C. for relatively inexperienced individuals.
    D. if the individual did not experience an orgasm.

 

  1. The period of time following orgasm during which males are highly unresponsive to further stimulation is the
    A.refractory period.
    B. recovery period.
    C. resolution period.
    D. reactionary period.

 

  1. Scott just experienced an orgasm. For about an hour he cannot achieve another orgasm. Scott is in the ____ phase of the sexual response cycle.
    A.excitement
    B. plateau
    C. orgasmic
    D. resolution

 

  1. Annette was experiencing a high level of sexual excitement as her boyfriend kissed and caressed her. However, the phone rang and interrupted them. Her heart rate and respiration rate are slowly returning to normal, but she feels a sense of frustration. Based on the phases described by Masters and Johnson, Annette is in the
    A.resolution phase.
    B. plateau phase.
    C. post-orgasmic phase.
    D. refractory period.

 

  1. Jaden experienced an orgasm just over 30 minutes ago. He is still largely unresponsive to sexual stimulation. Based on the phases described by Masters and Johnson, Jaden is in the
    A.plateau phase.
    B. post-orgasmic phase.
    C. excitement phase.
    D. resolution phase.

 

  1. Which of the following BEST describes the refractory period?
    A.the time between orgasms in multiorgasmic women
    B. a time following female orgasm during which females are largely unresponsive to further stimulation
    C. a time following male orgasm during which males are largely unresponsive to further stimulation
    D. the time between initiation of intercourse and orgasm

 

  1. Both penile erection in men and vaginal lubrication in females occur as a result of
    A.orgasm.
    B. decreased blood pressure.
    C. vasocongestion.
    D. muscular tension.

 

  1. Pat’s sexual arousal just reached its peak intensity and was discharged in a series of muscular contractions that pulsated through the pelvic area. Pat just experienced the ____ phase of the human sexual response.
    A.peak
    B. orgasm
    C. plateau
    D. resolution

 

  1. During which phase of the human sexual response are male-female gender differences MOST pronounced?
    A.excitement phase
    B. plateau phase
    C. orgasm phase
    D. resolution phase

 

  1. Which of the following statements concerning the orgasm phase of the human sexual response is NOT correct?
    A.the subjective experience of orgasm is very similar for men and women
    B. women are more likely than men to engage in intercourse without experiencing an orgasm
    C. women are less likely than men to be multiorgasmic
    D. in men, ejaculation of semen occurs during orgasm

 

  1. The reduction in sexual tension during the resolution phase of the human sexual response is generally relatively slow or more gradual
    A.for males.
    B. for females.
    C. for relatively inexperienced individuals.
    D. if the individual did not experience an orgasm.

 

  1. The period of time following orgasm during which males are highly unresponsive to further stimulation is the
    A.refractory period.
    B. recovery period.
    C. resolution period.
    D. reactionary period.

 

  1. Parental investment theory suggests that males and females
    A.make significant personal investments to produce and nurture offspring.
    B. do not make significant personal investments to produce and nurture offspring.
    C. may develop different mating strategies.
    D. develop similar mating strategies.

 

  1. Which of the following researchers proposed parental investment theory?
    A.David Buss
    B. Walter Cannon
    C. Robert Trivers
    D. Stanley Schachter

 

  1. ____ theory asserts that a species’ mating patterns depend on what each sex has to invest in the way of time, energy, and survival risk to maximize the transmission of its genes to the next generation.
    A.Drive
    B. Inclusive fitness
    C. Parental investment
    D. Physiological equilibrium

 

  1. What theory asserts that a species’ mating patterns depend on what each sex has to invest in the way of time, energy, and survival risk to maximize the transmission of its genes to the next generation?
    A.Drive
    B. Parental investment
    C. Physiological equilibrium
    D. Inclusive fitness

 

  1. Parental investment theory predicts that, in comparison to women, men show ____ interest in sexual activity and ____ willingness to engage in uncommitted sex.
    A.less; more
    B. more; less
    C. less; less
    D. more; more

 

  1. Research into gender differences in sexual behavior shows that, in comparison to women, men show ____ interest in sexual activity and ____ willingness to engage in uncommitted sex.
    A.less; more
    B. more; less
    C. less; less
    D. more; more

 

  1. Research into gender differences in sexual behavior shows that, in comparison to men, women show ____ desire for variety in sexual partners, and ____ interest in sexual activity.
    A.less; more
    B. more; less
    C. less; less
    D. more; more

 

  1. Research into gender differences in sexual behavior shows that, in comparison to men, women are ____ likely to consent to sex with someone that they have known for a brief period of time, and show ____ interest in sexual activity.
    A.less; more
    B. less; less
    C. more; more
    D. more; less

 

  1. Parental investment theory suggests that males and females
    A.make significant personal investments to produce and nurture offspring.
    B. do not make significant personal investments to produce and nurture offspring.
    C. may develop different mating strategies.
    D. develop similar mating strategies.

 

  1. According to parental investment theory, human males can maximize their reproductive potential by
    A.actively contributing to the care of their offspring.
    B. seeking partners who have strength and agility.
    C. being highly selective in mating.
    D. mating with as many females as possible.

 

  1. Parental investment theory suggests all of the following EXCEPT
    A.human males are required to invest little in the production of offspring.
    B. human males compete with other males for the “commodity” of reproductive opportunities.
    C. human females can optimize their reproductive potential by mating with as many males as possible.
    D. males and females may develop different mating strategies.

 

  1. Studies by evolutionary theorists of which of the following topics have drawn the MOST attention?
    A.hunger
    B. aggression
    C. territoriality
    D. sexual behavior

 

  1. Which group tends to overestimate the interest the opposite sex has in them?
    A.women
    B. men
    C. both sexes
    D. neither sex, both are realistic

 

  1. Psychologists who take an evolutionary view argue that natural selection favors behaviors that maximize an individual’s
    A.self-actualization.
    B. acquisition of territory.
    C. reproductive success.
    D. material wealth.

 

  1. Evolutionary theory suggests that men place more emphasis than women on the ____ of a potential mate
    A.social status
    B. youthfulness
    C. ambition
    D. intelligence

 

  1. Evolutionary theory suggests that women place more emphasis than men on the ____ of a potential mate.
    A.height
    B. attractiveness
    C. social status
    D. youthfulness

 

  1. Parental investment theory predicts that in comparison to men, women show ____ desire for variety in sexual partners, and ____ interest in sexual activity.
    A.less; more
    B. more; less
    C. less; less
    D. more; more

 

  1. Evolutionary theory predicts that women should place more emphasis than men on all but which of the following partner characteristics?
    A.ambition
    B. intelligence
    C. social status
    D. physical attractiveness

 

  1. Research into gender differences in mate preference shows that, in comparison to men, women show ____ desire for partners who are intelligent, ambitious and have a high social status and ____ interest in attractiveness.
    A.less; more
    B. more; less
    C. less; less
    D. more; more

 

  1. Research on gender differences in mate preferences has found that
    A.women are indifferent to men’s potential for parental investment.
    B. men favorably disposed to investing in children are seen as more attractive.
    C. women favorably disposed to investing in children are seen as more attractive.
    D. men pay more attention to a potential partner’s willingness to invest in children.

 

  1. In the Featured Study by Buss on judging mate potential, the participants were
    A.American men and women from a wide range of ages.
    B. men and women from the United States and European countries.
    C. male students from the University of Chicago.
    D. women undergraduates from the University of California.

 

  1. Which of the following statements BEST summarizes the findings of the Featured Study on judging mate potential?
    A.the results were consistent with the evolutionary theory
    B. the results from women were consistent with the evolutionary theory, but the results from men were not
    C. the results from men were consistent with the evolutionary theory, but the results from women were not
    D. results were not consistent with the evolutionary theory

 

  1. The Featured Study on judging mate potential found that
    A.men’s ratings of women correlated moderately with the women’s estrogen levels
    B. men’s ratings of women did not correlate with the women’s estrogen levels
    C. women’s ratings of men correlated moderately with the men’s testosterone levels
    D. women’s ratings of men did not correlate with the men’s testosterone levels

 

  1. The Featured Study on judging mate potential found that
    A.men’s ratings of women correlated moderately with the women’s interest in infants.
    B. men’s ratings of women did not correlate with the women’s interest in infants.
    C. women’s ratings of men did not correlate with the men’s interest in infants.
    D. women’s ratings of men correlated moderately with the men’s interest in infants.

 

  1. The results from the Featured Study on culture and mating preferences tend to support which of the following theories of sexual motivation?
    A.cognitive theory
    B. humanistic theory
    C. psychoanalytic theory
    D. evolutionary theory

 

  1. At present, which of the following approaches appears to provide the most complete account for gender disparities in sexual motivation and mating preferences?
    A.operant conditioning
    B. evolutionary theory
    C. social learning theory
    D. sociopolitical theory

 

  1. Which of the following statements concerning erotic material is false?
    A.erotic material increases the likelihood of overt sexual activity for several hours after the exposure
    B. erotic material may alter attitudes in ways that eventually influence sexual behavior
    C. erotic material plays a major role in the commission of sexual offenses
    D. erotic material stimulates sexual desire in many people

 

  1. Which of the following statements concerning erotic material is true?
    A.erotic material increases the likelihood of overt sexual activity for several days after the exposure
    B. erotic material may alter attitudes in ways that eventually influence sexual behavior
    C. erotic material plays a major role in the commission of sexual offenses
    D. erotic material stimulates sexual desire in males but not females

 

  1. Darren has recently been viewing sexually explicit films several times a week. It is MOST likely that Darren might
    A.become more satisfied with his sexual partner’s appearance and behavior.
    B. develop more conservative attitudes about sexual practices.
    C. become dissatisfied with his own sexual interactions.
    D. commit a sexual offense.

 

  1. The type of erotic material that depicts violence against women and may result in an increase in aggressive behavior toward women is referred to as
    A.aggressive pornography.
    B. hate pornography.
    C. hard-core pornography.
    D. soft-core pornography.

 

  1. Which of the following effects has NOT been supported by research?
    A.Viewing erotic materials tends to cause sex crimes.
    B. Viewing erotic materials changes ones attitudes to be more liberal about sexual practices.
    C. Viewing erotic materials may make some people dissatisfied with their own sexual interactions.
    D. Viewing erotic materials elevates the likelihood of overt sexual activity for a few hours immediately after the exposure.

 

  1. Dudley enjoys watching sexually explicit films, especially films that include some violence and aggression. Based on the results from research studies in this area, you might predict that after viewing these types of films
    A.there will be an increase in Dudley’s aggressiveness toward women
    B. there will be a decrease in Dudley’s aggressiveness toward women
    C. Dudley is less likely to find the women that he meets sexually attractive
    D. Dudley will be more likely to seek out bisexual relationships

 

  1. Which of the following statements regarding exposure to erotic material is MOST accurate?
    A.Most evidence demonstrates a strong association between use of pornography and committing sex crimes.
    B. Sexual desire reaches a peak during the exposure, and then quickly abates.
    C. It increases the likelihood of sexual activity for a few hours after the exposure.
    D. Viewing erotic materials makes most people more adventurous in their own sexual interactions.

 

  1. About what proportion of women surveyed on 32 college campuses (Koss, Gidycz, and Wisniewski, 1987) reported having been victimized by date rape?
    A.2 in 3
    B. 1 in 2
    C. 1 in 7
    D. 1 in 15

 

  1. Research on rape has found that approximately 1 out of ____ women have reported that they have been victimized by date rape or an attempted date rape.
    A.20
    B. 10
    C. 7
    D. 33

 

  1. A person’s preference for emotional and sexual relationships with individuals of the same, other or either sex refers to a person’s ____.
    A.sexual orientation
    B. homosexuality
    C. bisexuality
    D. heterosexuality

 

  1. A person who seeks emotional-sexual relationships with members of the other sex is referred to as
    A.heterosexual.
    B. homosexual.
    C. bisexual.
    D. monogamous.

 

  1. A person who seeks emotional-sexual relationships with members of either sex is referred to as
    A.heterosexual.
    B. homosexual.
    C. bisexual.
    D. monogamous.

 

  1. A person who seeks emotional-sexual relationships with members of the same sex is referred to as
    A.heterosexual.
    B. homosexual.
    C. bisexual.
    D. monogamous.

 

  1. Which of the following terms is most likely to be used by a homosexual woman to describe her sexual orientation?
    A.gay
    B. lesbian
    C. bisexual
    D. straight

 

  1. Alfred Kinsey argued that homosexuality and heterosexuality are
    A.end points on a “sexual orientation” continuum.
    B. orientations based on early learning.
    C. orientations that are a function of genetics.
    D. value judgments and should be of little concern to scientists.

 

  1. Recent studies suggest that ____ of the population could reasonably be characterized as homosexual.
    A.less than 1 percent
    B. approximately 5 to 8 percent
    C. between 12 and 15 percent
    D. just over 18 percent

 

  1. A person’s preference for emotional and sexual relationships with individuals of the same, the other, or either sex describes the person’s
    A.sexuality.
    B. gender preference.
    C. gender orientation.
    D. sexual orientation.

 

  1. A young man who prefers and seeks emotional and sexual relationships with men has a ____ orientation.
    A.unisexual
    B. bisexual
    C. homosexual
    D. heterosexual

 

  1. An individual who prefers and seeks emotional and sexual relationships with members of the “opposite sex” has a ____ orientation.
    A.heterosexual
    B. homosexual
    C. bisexual
    D. unisexual

 

  1. Approximately ____ of the population can reasonably be characterized as homosexual.
    A.1%-5%
    B. 5%-10%
    C. 10%-15%
    D. 20%-25%

 

  1. Research concerning the upbringing and childhood experiences of homosexuals has NOT supported ____ theories.
    A.psychoanalytic and behavioral
    B. psychoanalytic and biological
    C. behavioral and biological
    D. biological and cognitive

 

  1. Which of the following statements concerning homosexuality is false?
    A.most homosexuals can trace their homosexual leanings back to early childhood
    B. circulating hormone levels are not linked to sexual orientation
    C. extremely feminine behavior in young boys does not predict the subsequent development of homosexuality
    D. there appears to be a genetic predisposition to homosexuality

 

  1. Which theoretical approach to explaining the origins of homosexuality argues that homosexuality results when a boy is raised by a weak, detached, ineffectual father and an overprotective close-binding mother?
    A.biological
    B. psychoanalytic
    C. operant conditioning
    D. classical conditioning

 

  1. Which of the following statements regarding homosexuality BEST describes the view of the behavioral theorists when it comes to explaining the origin of homosexuality?
    A.In some cases, female homosexuality has been linked to prenatal exposure to abnormally high levels of androgens.
    B. There are anatomical differences in the brain between homosexual and heterosexual men.
    C. Homosexuality is a learned preference acquired when same-sex stimuli have been paired with sexual arousal.
    D. Identical twins of homosexual men are more likely to be homosexual than are fraternal twins of homosexual men

 

  1. Which of the following statements regarding homosexuality best describes the view of the psychoanalytic theorists when it comes to explaining the origin of homosexuality?
    A.In some cases, female homosexuality has been linked to prenatal exposure to abnormally high levels of androgens.
    B. There are anatomical differences in the brain between homosexual and heterosexual men.
    C. Homosexuality is a learned preference acquired when same-sex stimuli have been paired with sexual arousal.
    D. Homosexuality results when a boy is raised by a weak, detached, ineffectual father and an overprotective close-binding mother.

 

  1. Which of the following statements regarding homosexuality has NOT been supported by empirical evidence?
    A.In some cases, female homosexuality has been linked to prenatal exposure to abnormally high levels of androgens.
    B. There are anatomical differences in the brain between homosexual and heterosexual men.
    C. Homosexuality is a learned preference acquired when same-sex stimuli have been paired with sexual arousal.
    D. Identical twins of homosexual men are more likely to be homosexual than are fraternal twins of homosexual men.

 

  1. Recent studies suggest that ____ of highly feminine young boys eventually turn out to be gay.
    A.less than 1 percent
    B. approximately 50 percent
    C. between 75 and 90 percent
    D. just over 18 percent

 

  1. Several lines of research suggest that ____ during critical periods of prenatal development may influence sexual orientation as an adult.
    A.severe physical trauma
    B. hormonal secretions
    C. neural abnormalities
    D. loss of oxygen

 

  1. Research by Bailey and Pillard in 1991 showed that
    A.in some cases, female homosexuality has been linked to prenatal exposure to abnormally high levels of androgens.
    B. there are anatomical differences in the brain between homosexual and heterosexual men.
    C. homosexuality is a learned preference acquired when same-sex stimuli have been paired with sexual arousal.
    D. identical twins of homosexual men are more likely to be homosexual than are fraternal twins of homosexual men.

 

  1. Which of the following approaches to explaining the origins of homosexuality has received the MOST empirical support?
    A.biological
    B. psychoanalytic
    C. operant conditioning
    D. classical conditioning

 

  1. Research by Bailey and Pillard in the 1990s suggested that
    A.homosexuality results when a boy is raised by a weak, detached, ineffectual father and an overprotective close-binding mother.
    B. there are anatomical differences in the brain between homosexual and heterosexual men.
    C. homosexuality is a learned preference acquired when same-sex stimuli have been paired with sexual arousal.
    D. there is a genetic predisposition to homosexuality.

 

  1. Recent research into the biological roots of homosexuality has focused on
    A.the organizing effects of prenatal hormones on neurological development.
    B. the anatomical differences in the brain between homosexual and heterosexual men.
    C. the genetic differences between homosexual men who are identical twins.
    D. hormone level differences between gay and straight men.

 

  1. Research into environmental and sociocultural influence on homosexuality shows that, in comparison to men, women show
    A.greater plasticity in changing their sexual orientation over the course of their adult years.
    B. less plasticity in changing their sexual orientation over the course of their adult years.
    C. more stability in their sexual orientation over the course of their adult years.
    D. more rigidity in their sexual orientation over the course of their adult years.

 

  1. If Ted is a gay man, of the following individuals, who would be most likely to also be gay?
    A.Ted’s Uncle Alan
    B. Ted’s adoptive brother Bob
    C. Ted’s fraternal twin brother Chuck
    D. Ted’s identical twin brother Don

 

  1. Which of the following statements regarding lesbian women is false?
    A.lesbian women are less likely than gay men to trace their homosexuality back to their childhood
    B. lesbian women rarely change their sexual orientation over the course of their adult years
    C. lesbian women are more likely than gay men to indicate that their attraction to the same sex emerged during adulthood
    D. there is an increased rate of homosexuality among women exposed to high levels of androgen prenatally

 

  1. According to David McClelland and his colleagues, what is of the utmost importance?
    A.the quality of their personal relationships
    B. the need for achievement
    C. the number of people they consider “friends”
    D. the size of their immediate family

 

  1. The need to master difficult challenges, outperform others, and meet high standards of excellence is referred to as
    A.an intellect motive.
    B. a power motive.
    C. a competence motive.
    D. an achievement motive.

 

  1. Max has the need to master difficult challenges, to outperform others, and to meet high standards for excellence. According to researchers such as McClelland and Atkinson, Max MOST likely
    A.has high affiliation needs.
    B. is high in achievement motivation.
    C. is low in achievement motivation.
    D. has a high fear of failure.

 

  1. Which of the following needs is NOT generally considered a component of the achievement motive?
    A.outperforming others
    B. meeting high standards of excellence
    C. being accepted by others
    D. desiring to excel

 

  1. A person’s need for achievement is usually assessed using the
    A.Wechsler Adult Intelligence Scale (WAIS)
    B. Minnesota Multiphasic Personality Inventory (MMPI)
    C. Thematic Apperception Test (TAT)
    D. Edwards Manifest Needs Scale (EMNS)

 

  1. The Thematic Apperception Test has been used to assess an individual’s
    A.arousal level.
    B. competence motive.
    C. psychocybernetic motive.
    D. achievement motive.

 

  1. The Thematic Apperception Test is considered ____ test.
    A.an aptitude
    B. a projective
    C. an achievement
    D. a criterion-based

 

  1. The projective test that has been used a great deal to measure affiliation need is the
    A.Thematic Apperception Test.
    B. Minnesota Multiphasic Personality Test.
    C. Sarason Sociability Scale.
    D. Rorschach Ink Blot Test.

 

  1. Royce is telling a story about a character on a TAT card. In his story, Royce focuses on the character’s need to win a contest as she prepares a speech that will be presented. He indicates that the character has spent a great deal of time worrying whether the speech may not be good enough to impress the judges and win the contest. Royce’s response to this TAT card suggests that he MOST likely has
    A.a low need for achievement.
    B. a high need for affiliation.
    C. a high need for achievement.
    D. a low need for affiliation.

 

  1. Breana is telling a story about a character on a TAT card. In her story, Breana focuses on the fact that the character is daydreaming about being promoted to a position of high status at work. Breana’s answer suggests that she MOST likely has
    A.a low need for achievement.
    B. a high need for affiliation.
    C. a high need for achievement.
    D. a low need for affiliation.

 

  1. Alisha is telling a story about a character on a TAT card. In her story, Alisha focuses on the individual’s lack of persistence when undertaking projects, and she also describes how the individual prefers situations that have little competition. Alisha’s answer suggests that she MOST likely has
    A.a low need for affiliation.
    B. a low need for achievement.
    C. a high need for affiliation.
    D. a high need for achievement.

 

  1. Austin is telling a story about a character on a TAT card. In his story, Austin focuses on the character’s desire to succeed, and he describes how unhappy the person will be if she does not succeed in reaching her goal. Austin’s answer suggests that he MOST likely has
    A.a low need for achievement.
    B. a high need for affiliation.
    C. a high need for achievement.
    D. a low need for affiliation.

 

  1. Maria is pursuing a highly competitive career, and she works very hard and persistently at her tasks. Maria’s behavior MOST likely reflects
    A.an external locus of control.
    B. a high achievement motivation.
    C. a high power need.
    D. an obsessive-compulsive personality structure.

 

  1. Which of the following psychologists is MOST closely identified with research on the achievement motive?
    A.David Buss
    B. Henry Murray
    C. Walter Cannon
    D. David McClelland

 

  1. Compared to low scorers, people who score high in the need for achievement
    A.devote more time to interpersonal activities.
    B. worry more about acceptance from others.
    C. tend to work harder and more persistently.
    D. show all of these characteristics.

 

  1. A person high in achievement motivation would be expected to show all EXCEPT which of the following characteristics?
    A.greater persistence on tasks
    B. tendency to seek immediate gratification
    C. tendency to choose competitive occupations
    D. tendency to choose tasks of intermediate difficulty

 

  1. People high in achievement motivation show all of the following characteristics EXCEPT
    A.a tendency to respond poorly to negative feedback.
    B. a tendency to delay gratification in order to pursue long-term goals.
    C. a tendency to work hard on tasks.
    D. a tendency to be persistent on tasks.

 

  1. In a friendly game of horseshoes, you would expect a person high in achievement motivation to choose to stand
    A.very close to the target.
    B. a moderate distance from the target.
    C. very far from the target
    D. either very close to or very far from the target.

 

  1. McClelland’s research with achievement themes in popular literature and the later economic success of a society suggested
    A.a positive relationship between story achievement themes and later economic success.
    B. no relationship between story themes and economic activity.
    C. a negative relationship between story themes and economic activity.
    D. none of these things.

 

  1. Imagine that a sociologist had been tracking the patent index in a developing country for the past 30 years. Over that time, the number of patents applied for has been steadily increasing. Based on David McClelland’s work, it is likely that this country’s need for achievement will
    A.also have steadily increased over the past 30 years.
    B. have shown a steady decline over the past 30 years.
    C. not have changed over the past 30 years.
    D. have fluctuated randomly over the past 30 years.

 

  1. Which of the following statement regarding the need for achievement is the MOST accurate?
    A.The need for achievement is highly variable in a given person throughout his/her lifetime.
    B. Achievement motive is generally determined by situational factors.
    C. The need for achievement is a fairly stable aspect of one’s personality.
    D. There is a strong genetic component in the need for achievement.

 

  1. Which of the following characteristics is LEAST likely to be found in persons high in achievement motivation?
    A.tendency to select the hardest tasks
    B. tendency to delay gratification
    C. future-oriented
    D. persistent

 

  1. Given a high level of achievement motivation, which type task should maximize one’s sense of accomplishment?
    A.a very difficult task
    B. an intermediate difficulty task
    C. a very easy task
    D. task difficulty doesn’t matter

 

  1. Stefan is an individual who has a high need for achievement. His boss has three jobs that need to be completed; one job is easy, one job is moderately difficult, and one job is extremely difficult. If Stefan is allowed to choose which of the three jobs he will undertake for his boss, you would expect that Stefan will
    A.maximize the task difficulty by selecting the hardest job.
    B. choose the easy job, to maximize his chance for success.
    C. choose the moderately difficult job.
    D. ask his boss to make the choice, to avoid a potentially negative evaluation.

 

  1. A person’s achievement behavior is influenced by all of the following EXCEPT
    A.the probability of success.
    B. the incentive value of success.
    C. the person’s level of achievement motivation.
    D. the person’s level of affiliation motivation.

 

  1. The two primary situational factors that influence achievement behavior are
    A.the probability of success and incentive value of success
    B. the probability of success and probability of failure
    C. the incentive value of success and the individual’s achievement motivation
    D. the probability of success and the individual’s achievement motivation

 

  1. People high in the need for achievement prefer moderately challenging tasks compared to either very easy or very difficult tasks because
    A.succeeding on moderate tasks is possible and satisfying.
    B. succeeding on moderate tasks is most satisfying.
    C. succeeding on very easy tasks provides little satisfaction.
    D. succeeding on very difficult tasks is unlikely.

 

  1. People high in the need for achievement prefer ____ tasks since these tasks provide an appropriate combination of probability of success and incentive value for success.
    A.extremely difficult
    B. moderately difficult
    C. moderately easy
    D. extremely easy

 

  1. According to Atkinson’s expectancy-value model, the pursuit of achievement increases as the probability of success ____, and the incentive value of success ____.
    A.increases; decreases
    B. increases; increases
    C. decreases; increases
    D. decreases; decreases

 

  1. The determinant of achievement that increases when a student is enrolled in a university course that is required for graduation is
    A.the incentive value of success.
    B. the probability of success.
    C. the need to avoid failure.
    D. the need for achievement.

 

  1. Boris has a high need for achievement, and he is currently enrolled in a philosophy course that is required for his major. The professor who teaches the course gives extremely difficult exams, and has never been known to give a student a grade higher than a B. Under these conditions, it is likely that Boris
    A.will not exert his maximum effort in the course because the course has a low incentive value for him.
    B. will exert the maximum effort he can because he has a high need for achievement.
    C. will not exert his maximum effort in the course because he has a low expectation of success.
    D. will drop the course and switch to a different major.

 

  1. Cyndi is an individual who has a high need for achievement. She is trying to decide which one of four possible courses she should take as her final elective course for her degree. One of the courses is supposed to be an easy course, with an “A” practically guaranteed for very little effort; one course is supposed to be moderately difficult, but with effort an “A” is possible; one course is supposed to be a “killer” course with little chance of earning a grade higher than a “B”; the fourth course is a seminar-style course with no grades assigned. You should expect that Cyndi will choose
    A.the course that has no assigned grades.
    B. the moderately difficult course that requires effort for a high grade.
    C. the easy course which practically guarantees a high grade.
    D. the “killer” course to maximize her level of task difficulty.

 

  1. The three components that any complete treatment of emotion should include are
    A.cognitive, behavioral, physiological.
    B. cognitive, situational, physiological.
    C. social, situational, cognitive.
    D. behavioral, physiological, social.

 

  1. Which of the following is NOT one of the three components of emotion?
    A.behavioral
    B. cognitive
    C. perceptual
    D. physiological

 

  1. The subjective conscious experience of an emotion describes the
    A.behavioral component.
    B. cognitive component.
    C. perceptual component.
    D. physiological component.

 

  1. In studying the cognitive components of emotions, psychologists generally rely on which of the following?
    A.heart rate
    B. galvanic skin response
    C. subjects’ verbal reports
    D. scores on the Thematic Apperception Test

 

  1. Paola is about to give a speech in front of a roomful of strangers. As he steps up to the podium he feels anxious and nervous. This reaction is part of the
    A.physiological component in Paola’s emotional experience.
    B. behavioral component in Paola’s emotional experience.
    C. objective component in Paola’s emotional experience.
    D. cognitive component in Paola’s emotional experience.

 

  1. Laura is about to take her certification exam that will qualify her as a licensed therapist. As she enters the testing room she feels anxious and nervous. This reaction is part of the
    A.physiological component in Laura’s emotional experience.
    B. behavioral component in Laura’s emotional experience.
    C. objective component in Laura’s emotional experience.
    D. cognitive component in Laura’s emotional experience.

 

  1. Janie is listening to several of her friends describe the miserable conditions they saw when they were in Bosnia, as part of the peace-keeping force. As she listens to the stories of starvation and ruin, Janie feels overwhelmed by sadness. This reaction is part of the
    A.physiological component in Janie’s emotional experience.
    B. behavioral component in Janie’s emotional experience.
    C. cognitive component in Janie’s emotional experience.
    D. objective component in Janie’s emotional experience.

 

  1. The observation that one individual may experience an airplane flight as an anxiety-arousing situation while another individual may experience an airplane flight as a routine event reflects that emotion involves
    A.a subjective conscious experience or cognitive component.
    B. an objective conscious experience or cognitive component.
    C. bodily arousal or a physiological component.
    D. an overt response or a behavioral component.

 

  1. As Christine is watching the climax of a horror movie, all at once she is frightened, nervous, and excited. Her behavior reflects the ____ component of emotion.
    A.behavioral
    B. cognitive
    C. perceptual
    D. physiological

 

  1. Autonomic arousal MOST directly relates to the ____ component of emotion.
    A.physiological
    B. perceptual
    C. behavioral
    D. cognitive

 

  1. The physiological component of emotion is directly associated with the functioning of the
    A.autonomic nervous system.
    B. somatic nervous system.
    C. central nervous system.
    D. hindbrain.

 

  1. As Christine is watching the climax of a horror movie, she gets “goose bumps,” her heart starts pounding, and her breathing becomes more rapid. Her behavior reflects the ____ component of emotion.
    A.behavioral
    B. cognitive
    C. perceptual
    D. physiological

 

  1. Which of the following is NOT associated with autonomic arousal?
    A.increased heart rate
    B. sweaty palms or increased perspiration
    C. increased digestion
    D. dilation of pupils

 

  1. A polygraph typically monitors all of the following EXCEPT
    A.respiration rate.
    B. dilation of the pupils.
    C. galvanic skin response (GSR).
    D. blood pressure.

 

  1. The ____ component of an emotion refers to the bodily arousal of that emotion.
    A.cognitive
    B. physiological
    C. affective
    D. behavioral

 

  1. The galvanic skin response is a measure of
    A.blood flow through the skin.
    B. muscle tension of the skin.
    C. electrical conductivity of the skin.
    D. two-point difference threshold of the skin.

 

  1. Malcolm is reading a mystery novel, and as the action builds he finds he is breathing more quickly than usual, and he feels like his stomach is tied in knots. These reactions are part of the
    A.objective component in Malcolm’s emotional experience.
    B. physiological component in Malcolm’s emotional experience.
    C. cognitive component in Malcolm’s emotional experience.
    D. behavioral component in Malcolm’s emotional experience.

 

  1. Lee is about to take his drivers exam. As he enters the testing room he notices that is heart is racing and his palms are sweating. This reaction is part of the
    A.physiological component in Lee’s emotional experience.
    B. behavioral component in Lee’s emotional experience.
    C. objective component in Lee’s emotional experience.
    D. cognitive component in Lee’s emotional experience.

 

  1. As Danica saw the headlights coming directly at her through the fog on the highway, her blood pressure rose quickly, and she felt her heart start to race. These reactions are part of
    A.the behavioral component in Danica’s emotional experience.
    B. the objective component in Danica’s emotional experience.
    C. the cognitive component in Danica’s emotional experience.
    D. the physiological component in Danica’s emotional experience.

 

  1. The GSR is usually considered to be
    A.a measure of conscious emotion
    B. an index of honesty
    C. a measure of the cognitive component of emotion
    D. a general measure of autonomic arousal

 

  1. A device that measures heart rate, respiration rate, and blood pressure (i.e., autonomic arousal) is
    A.a polygraph
    B. a galvanic response meter
    C. an electromyocardiograph
    D. an electroencephalograph

 

  1. Most of the discernible physiological arousal associated with emotion occurs through the actions of the
    A.medulla.
    B. forebrain.
    C. central nervous system.
    D. autonomic nervous system.

 

  1. Lee is about to take his drivers exam. As he enters the testing room he notices that he is feeling anxious. The physiological experience of his emotion reaction is MOST likely the result of the action of Lee’s
    A.medulla
    B. forebrain
    C. central nervous system
    D. autonomic nervous system

 

  1. Which of the following statements about polygraphs is MOST accurate?
    A.Polygraphs can detect lying with almost 100 percent accuracy.
    B. Polygraphs can detect emotionality that accompanies lying some of the time, but with a high error rate.
    C. Polygraphs cannot detect emotionality at all.
    D. Polygraphs can detect positive emotional states with a high degree of accuracy and negative emotional states with a low degree of accuracy.

 

  1. Victoria is extremely upset because she has been falsely accused of stealing money from her employer. Her lawyer has suggested that Victoria take a polygraph test to prove her innocence. She asks you whether she should agree to the test. Based on the research into the accuracy of polygraphs, you should tell Victoria that polygraphs
    A.are extremely accurate, and if Victoria is truly innocent she will pass with no problem.
    B. only measure overall arousal levels and are not reliable indicators of whether or not people are lying.
    C. sometimes wrongly indicate that innocent people are guilty, but are 100% accurate in detecting guilt.
    D. sometimes wrongly indicate that guilty people are innocent, but are 100% accurate in detecting innocence.

 

  1. Recent evidence suggests that the ____ plays a particularly central role in the modulation of emotion.
    A.amygdala
    B. thalamus
    C. temporal lobe
    D. pineal gland

 

  1. Laura is about to take her certification exam that will qualify her as a licensed therapist. As she enters the testing room she feels anxious and nervous. This reaction is MOST likely the result of activity in what part of Laura’s brain?
    A.amygdala
    B. thalamus
    C. temporal lobe
    D. pineal gland

 

  1. At times, the results of polygraph testing
    A.correctly indicate that a person is lying.
    B. incorrectly indicate that a truthful person is lying.
    C. incorrectly indicate that a dishonest person is truthful.
    D. all of the above are correct.

 

  1. Research on the role of the amygdala in the modulation of emotion has focused mainly on which of the following emotions?
    A.fear
    B. sadness
    C. surprise
    D. happiness

 

  1. Which of the following statements most accurately reflects the results of recent research on the amygdala?
    A.it processes information related only to fear
    B. it may play a role in positive emotions as well as fear
    C. it processes a wide range of negative emotions, but not positive ones
    D. it may play a role in a wide range of positive emotions, but not negative ones

 

  1. What part of the brain is known for its role in voluntary control over emotional reactions?
    A.amygdala
    B. thalamus
    C. temporal lobe
    D. prefrontal cortex

 

  1. The ____ has been implicated in the process of pain related emotional distress.
    A.amygdala
    B. cingulated cortex
    C. temporal lobe
    D. prefrontal cortex

 

  1. The thalamus simultaneously transmits information capable of eliciting emotion to both the
    A.hypothalamus and cerebral cortex.
    B. hypothalamus and cerebellum.
    C. amygdala and cerebral cortex.
    D. amygdala and cerebellum.

 

  1. The nervous system pathway which transmits information from the thalamus to the ____ is a rapid-response pathway that quickly results in physiological responses associated with emotion.
    A.medulla
    B. amygdala
    C. cerebral cortex
    D. cerebellum

 

  1. All of the following are associated with the physiological component of emotion EXCEPT the
    A.endocrine system
    B. cerebral cortex
    C. autonomic nervous system
    D. amygdala

 

  1. Body language is directly related to the ____ component of emotion.
    A.perceptual
    B. physiological
    C. cognitive
    D. behavioral

 

  1. As Christine is watching the climax of a horror movie, she grasps the arms of her chair, gasps, and closes her eyes. Her behavior reflects the ____ component of emotions.
    A.physiological
    B. cognitive
    C. perceptual
    D. behavioral